i agree with the idea you are trying to say, that we got away from a norm. but i do have many things against the cathlics, but one i will use. matt 23:9 and 1 tim 2:5.
Would you like to talk about them? You may find that what you think is there that you object to, really isn't.
Matthew 23:9
And do not call anyone on earth 'father,' for you have one Father, and he is in heaven.
If this means we are not to call humans "father" then why are there numerous examples and references of people doing just that?
Why is Abraham called " our father Abraham" in Acts 7:2 or Isaac "our father Isaac" in Romans 9:10?
Why does scripture tell us that it was ok for christians to call Paul "father" or for Paul to encourage such? Why does Paul regularly referred to Timothy as his child:
"Therefore I sent to you Timothy, my beloved and faithful child in the Lord, to remind you of my ways in Christ" (1 Cor. 4:17);
"To Timothy, my true child in the faith: grace, mercy, and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord" (1 Tim. 1:2);
"To Timothy, my beloved child: Grace, mercy, and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord" (2 Tim. 1:2).
"This charge I commit to you, Timothy, my son, in accordance with the prophetic utterances which pointed to you, that inspired by them you may wage the good warfare" (1 Tim 1:18);
"You then, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus" (2 Tim. 2:1);
"But Timothy’s worth you know, how as a son with a father he has served with me in the gospel" (Phil. 2:22).
Why does Paul refer to others in this father/child relationship?
To Titus, my true child in a common faith: grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior" (Titus 1:4);
"I appeal to you for my child, Onesimus, whose father I have become in my imprisonment" (Philem. 10).
"I do not write this to make you ashamed, but to admonish you as my beloved children. For though you have countless guides in Christ, you do not have many fathers. For I became your father in Christ Jesus through the gospel" (1 Cor. 4:14–15).
"Here for the third time I am ready to come to you. And I will not be a burden, for I seek not what is yours but you; for children ought not to lay up for their parents, but parents for their children" (2 Cor. 12:14)
"My little children, with whom I am again in travail until Christ be formed in you!" (Gal. 4:19).
Why did Peter do the same? :
"She who is at Babylon, who is likewise chosen, sends you greetings; and so does my son Mark" (1 Pet. 5:13).
"Here for the third time I am ready to come to you. And I will not be a burden, for I seek not what is yours but you; for children ought not to lay up for their parents, but parents for their children" (2 Cor. 12:14)
"My little children, with whom I am again in travail until Christ be formed in you!" (Gal. 4:19).
Why did John do the same? :
"My little children, I am writing this to you so that you may not sin; but if any one does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (1 John 2:1);
"No greater joy can I have than this, to hear that my children follow the truth" (3 John 4).
And here we have very explicit examples of an Apostle calling other men "father" - John addresses men in his congregations as "fathers" (1 John 2:13–14).
If your interpretation of what that verse in Matthew says is correct and thus the Catholic practice of calling priests fathers is wrong, then how is it that the scripture treats calling men fathers as a completely acceptable and normal practice?
Your interpretation contradicts the rest of scripture on the matter. Scripture does not contradict scripture.
The rest of scripture on the matter supports the Catholic Church's practice of calling priests father.
Do you see this?