Yes. All, meaning all humans ever born on the earth. The same way as Genesis 7 means all humans. Not all in one area, or all of one race but ALL.
Okay, so we can be clear, it is your belief that when Scripture says "all" that 'all' is meant as an absolute, correct? If this is your belief, lets take a look see at Rom. 5:12; "Therefore, just as through one person sin entered the world, and through sin, death, and thus death came to all, inasmuch as all sinned." As we can see in this passage, Paul is making the connection between death and sin. He says "death spread to all men because all men sinned." That "because" is very important. So, if absolutely "ALL" men have sinned, as you claim, then we should see from the Word of God that absolutely "ALL" men have died, right? Well, seems like a bit of a problem here coffee4u. Did "ALL" men die? No. The Bible tells us Enoch never died - Hebrews 11:5; Genesis 5:24. So, "all" is not an absolute, would you not agree? Furthermore, since sin leads to death, and Enoch did not die, he must not have sinned, right?
Not only that, the Bible also tells us that Elijah never died - he was taken up to Heaven in a fiery chariot - 2 Kings 2:10-12. So, again, "ALL" doesn't mean absolutely "ALL," does it? Furthermore, since sin leads to death, and Elijah did not die, he must not have sinned, right? Also, we know that Jesus died. So, if death is because of sin, and Jesus died, then Jesus must have sinned, right? After all, it says "all" and "all" means absolutely "all", doesn't it? Then did Jesus sin? Of course not!
Also In the Protestant King James Version, Romans 5:18 says, "Therefore as by the offense of one judgment came upon ALL men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon ALL men unto justification of life."
So coffee4u, do you believe ALL men are saved? After all, Paul does say "ALL" men are acquitted and receive life because of Jesus. Do you believe in universal salvation? I doubt it.
Here are some words from Catholic apologist John Martignoni who's web site I often refer too that may be of interest:
"The Bible also says, in Romans chapter 3, that “None is righteous, no not one,” (Rom 3:10). Yet, the Bible is filled with people who are called “righteous” - Gen 6:9 (Noah), Psalms 14:5 (a whole generation of righteous folks), Luke 1:6 (Zechariah and Elizabeth), James 5:16 (the prayer of a righteous man), and many more places throughout the Old and New Testaments where the righteous are spoken of. So, either the Bible contradicts itself, or Romans 3:10 is not an absolute.
Also, in Romans 3, it says “No one does good, not even one,” (Rom 3:12). Yet, in many places throughout the Bible people’s good works and good deeds are spoken of. Again, is this a contradiction in God’s Word, or when Scripture says “no one...not even one,” it is not speaking in absolute terms?
One more example, from this same passage in Romans 3 that tells us “all have sinned.” Rom 3:11, “...no one seeks for God.” Are you seeking for God? I am. I know a lot of other people who are, as well. I’ll bet you are, too. But the Bible tells us “no one” is seeking God. So what’s going on here?
What’s going on is that Paul is not talking in absolute terms about all individuals who have walked the earth. He is talking about two groups of people - Jews and Greeks. And he is telling the Jews that they, like the Greeks (or the Gentiles), are also sinners. We see this in verse 9 of Romans 3. So, when Paul says that “all” have sinned, he means members of both groups, not necessarily absolutely all people who have ever lived. If he was speaking in absolutes, then what about Jesus? Did He sin? Of course not! So, there is at least one exception to “all have sinned,” which means it is not an absolute. And, if there is one exception, that allows for the possibility of another."
Yes I believe that as written too. No one seeks God unless God calls them.
I'm sorry coffee4u, but there is a bit of a problem here. Problem being, Firstly, Romans 3:11 does not say, "No one seeks God unless God calls them." It seems to me you are adding words to this passage. Again, what it actually say's is,,,, "No one seeks God" Not "No one seeks God unless God calls them." With that being said, it sounds as if you are telling me that "no one" does not actually mean no one? That "no one" is not an absolute? Is that what you are saying?
So, as you can see as I pointed out, what you state as fact in Rom.3:11, are words that I do not find in the Bible. ("unless God calls them") It is, for the most part, coffee4u words that you gave me,.... i.e. your personal interpretation of God's Word. So....coffee4u, should I believe your fallible personal interpretation/opinion of Scripture you gave me, or the actual Word of God? And that is my general issue with your answer. So much of what you state as fact, are words that I do not find in the Bible. It is, for the most part, coffee4u words that you gave me........ your non-authoritative, fallible, and personal interpretation of God's Word.
Have a Blessed Day!
