What or which laws are we redeemed from?

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bugkiller

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Some say we are only obligated to some law such as the 10 Cs and not the whole law. It is claimed that we are not obligated to the ceremonial laws. But Scripture says laws against us. Is ceremonal things not celebrating? How could they be against us? What is wrong with celebrating?

Still others seem to say that we are redeemed from some man made oral law. Why would God care about man's requirements?

Paul and James both say all the law or none. Some say as I indicated only part of the law. What is right? Is there some indication in Scripture for a partial severance from the law?

So what law is it that Romans 7:6 says we are delivered from?

Hope this makes sense to some here. It is just that there seems to be lots of fog on the matter of the law. I just do not understand why.

bugkiller
 
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jehoiakim

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Here is the verse you referenced interjected is my understanding, but it us just my interpretation

Rom 7:6
But now, by dying to what once bound us(which means accepting grace and dying to sin revealed by the law, but not the law itself), we have been released from the law(or the convictions that come with the law, and any false faith one might put in living up to the law for salvation purposes) so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code(the code is a shell and meaningless without grace, repentance and the Holy Spirit.)

(seems to make sense when you follow the verse in context of the scriptures following it..)

What shall we say, then? Is the law sinful? Certainly not! Nevertheless, I would not have known what sin was had it not been for the law. For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, “You shall not covet.”[b] 8 But sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, produced in me every kind of coveting. For apart from the law, sin was dead. 9 Once I was alive apart from the law; but when the commandment came, sin sprang to life and I died. 10 I found that the very commandment that was intended to bring life actually brought death. 11 For sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, deceived me, and through the commandment put me to death. 12 So then, the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, righteous and good.

Is it wrong to follow the whole of the Torah? I don't think so, Christ said "if you love me obey my commandments," and "I have come not to Abolish the Law/Torah, but to Fulfill it. "It is just wrong to trust in it to save you. We have a nasty habit of labeling anyone who is stricter in their convictions then us as a legalist, but really you are only a legalist if you think certain laws must be followed, not should be followed.
 
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Frogster

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Here is the verse you referenced interjected is my understanding, but it us just my interpretation

Rom 7:6
But now, by dying to what once bound us(which means accepting grace and dying to sin revealed by the law, but not the law itself), we have been released from the law(or the convictions that come with the law, and any false faith one might put in living up to the law for salvation purposes) so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code(the code is a shell and meaningless without grace, repentance and the Holy Spirit.)

(seems to make sense when you follow the verse in context of the scriptures following it..)

What shall we say, then? Is the law sinful? Certainly not! Nevertheless, I would not have known what sin was had it not been for the law. For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, “You shall not covet.”[b] 8 But sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, produced in me every kind of coveting. For apart from the law, sin was dead. 9 Once I was alive apart from the law; but when the commandment came, sin sprang to life and I died. 10 I found that the very commandment that was intended to bring life actually brought death. 11 For sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, deceived me, and through the commandment put me to death. 12 So then, the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, righteous and good.

Is it wrong to follow the whole of the Torah? I don't think so, Christ said "if you love me obey my commandments," and "I have come not to Abolish the Law/Torah, but to Fulfill it. "It is just wrong to trust in it to save you. We have a nasty habit of labeling anyone who is stricter in their convictions then us as a legalist, but really you are only a legalist if you think certain laws must be followed, not should be followed.

as far as abolishment and torah laws, lot of jot and tittle went away in 70 ad that were in torah.:)

besides, as far as rom 7...here are some texts to know also to get the full drift of 7.


it says sin will have dominion under law in Rom 6:14, the law was added to increase the trespass in rom 5:20, sinful passions were by law in rom 7:5, sin used the command in 7:8 and 7:11, sin is dead apart from the law, APART, from the law in 7:8 meaning that sin comes alive under law, the power of sin is the law 1 Cor 15:56.
 
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The way I understand it. Jesus' sacrifice delivered us from the curse of the law. The law is good because it lets us know what righteousness looks like. Once we know, then we submit to Jesus who imputes His righteousness to us through faith in His blood. So the life we live is in Christ,who through the agency of the Holy Spirit cleanses us of the sin which empowers the law.
 
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Some say we are only obligated to some law such as the 10 Cs and not the whole law. It is claimed that we are not obligated to the ceremonial laws. But Scripture says laws against us. Is ceremonal things not celebrating? How could they be against us? What is wrong with celebrating?

Still others seem to say that we are redeemed from some man made oral law. Why would God care about man's requirements?

Paul and James both say all the law or none. Some say as I indicated only part of the law. What is right? Is there some indication in Scripture for a partial severance from the law?

So what law is it that Romans 7:6 says we are delivered from?

Hope this makes sense to some here. It is just that there seems to be lots of fog on the matter of the law. I just do not understand why.

bugkiller
1) That not me but Peter taught that Paul wrote some things that can be confusing and at the same time if understood in the wrong way can lead to a spiritual destruction.
A)Some of it is confusing.
B)That confusing stuff when misunderstood leads to spiritual destruction.
C)Peter teaches all of that.

2)For instance Gospel of Grace:

16 knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
(NKJV Ga.2:16)

While what Paul writes here is TRUE , it needs to be understood correctly in the right context, here is the right context:

12 `And, from the days of John the Baptist till now, the reign of the heavens doth suffer violence, and violent men do take it by force,
(YLT Mt.11:12)


..... and forceful men lay hold of it.
(NIV Mt.11:12)

What does Mt.11:12 and Ga.2:16 talk about ? Are they contradictory ? No they are not !

They just need to be understood in the right light.

1)When Paul writes that we are saved apart from the Works of the Law he does not mean that NO MATTER what we do as long as we have the right confession of faith we will be saved. By the works of the Law here Paul means Mosaic Law such as:

Lev.7:1 'Likewise this is the law of
the trespass offering (it is most holy):

Lev.7:11 'This is the law of the
sacrifice of peace offerings which he
shall offer to the Lord:

Lev.14:2 "This shall be the law of
the leper for the day of his cleansing:
He shall be brought to the priest.

By the Law 10 commencements are not Mean but statues and these laws described above.

2)Mt.11:12. Means that in order to get to Heaven one must not only have the right confession but also keep trying to overcome your temptations and lusts as hard as you possibly can. It is a struggle and that what it means by and forceful men lay hold of it
 
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bugkiller

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1) That not me but Peter taught that Paul wrote some things that can be confusing and at the same time if understood in the wrong way can lead to a spiritual destruction.
A)Some of it is confusing.
B)That confusing stuff when misunderstood leads to spiritual destruction.
C)Peter teaches all of that.

2)For instance Gospel of Grace:

16 knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
(NKJV Ga.2:16)

While what Paul writes here is TRUE , it needs to be understood correctly in the right context, here is the right context:

12 `And, from the days of John the Baptist till now, the reign of the heavens doth suffer violence, and violent men do take it by force,
(YLT Mt.11:12)


..... and forceful men lay hold of it.
(NIV Mt.11:12)

What does Mt.11:12 and Ga.2:16 talk about ? Are they contradictory ? No they are not !

They just need to be understood in the right light.

1)When Paul writes that we are saved apart from the Works of the Law he does not mean that NO MATTER what we do as long as we have the right confession of faith we will be saved. By the works of the Law here Paul means Mosaic Law such as:

Lev.7:1 'Likewise this is the law of
the trespass offering (it is most holy):

Lev.7:11 'This is the law of the
sacrifice of peace offerings which he
shall offer to the Lord:

Lev.14:2 "This shall be the law of
the leper for the day of his cleansing:
He shall be brought to the priest.

By the Law 10 commencements are not Mean but statues and these laws described above.

2)Mt.11:12. Means that in order to get to Heaven one must not only have the right confession but also keep trying to overcome your temptations and lusts as hard as you possibly can. It is a struggle and that what it means by and forceful men lay hold of it
Looks like a c&p cross post. Is it spam?

bugkiller
 
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fhansen

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Some say we are only obligated to some law such as the 10 Cs and not the whole law. It is claimed that we are not obligated to the ceremonial laws. But Scripture says laws against us. Is ceremonal things not celebrating? How could they be against us? What is wrong with celebrating?

Still others seem to say that we are redeemed from some man made oral law. Why would God care about man's requirements?

Paul and James both say all the law or none. Some say as I indicated only part of the law. What is right? Is there some indication in Scripture for a partial severance from the law?

So what law is it that Romans 7:6 says we are delivered from?

Hope this makes sense to some here. It is just that there seems to be lots of fog on the matter of the law. I just do not understand why.

bugkiller
Man has always been obliged by God to fulfill the greatest commandments, to love Him and neighbor, simply because this is what He created man for-this is man's justice/righteousness/holiness, and via these commandments the Law and Prohets are summed up and fulfilled; love is how they're fulfilled by the Spirit rather than by the letter.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Some say we are only obligated to some law such as the 10 Cs and not the whole law. It is claimed that we are not obligated to the ceremonial laws. But Scripture says laws against us. Is ceremonal things not celebrating? How could they be against us? What is wrong with celebrating?

Still others seem to say that we are redeemed from some man made oral law. Why would God care about man's requirements?

Paul and James both say all the law or none. Some say as I indicated only part of the law. What is right? Is there some indication in Scripture for a partial severance from the law?

So what law is it that Romans 7:6 says we are delivered from?

Hope this makes sense to some here. It is just that there seems to be lots of fog on the matter of the law. I just do not understand why.

bugkiller

Chapter 13 of the same letter sums up the law in not harming your neighbour . but more specific to your question says .. the only debt left outstanding is to love one another . because this fulfills the law.

So it just means we are no longer obligated .. period . we are prompted by love .. as John teaches in his letters .. instead.
 
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we are saved from the laws of man so that we may do the laws of Christ

Rom 7:5-6 (YLT)
for when we were in the flesh, the passions of the sins, that are through the law, were working in our members, to bear fruit to the death; and now we have ceased from the law, that being dead in which we were held, so that we may serve in newness of spirit, and not in oldness of letter.

the laws of men is the way the law of God is perceived by sinful men, the laws of Christ is the newness of the Holy Spirit of whom only the saints of God partake of. they are the ones that worship God in Spirit and in Truth, the flesh profits nothing, rather a new creation. if you are not born from above then you can not fulfill the law because only Christ does that and those who have Christ as their head. the passions of the Spirit of God now work through our members to produce fruit unto life. shadows/flesh/letter have no strength, they pass away quickly as the reality of the Spirit of God is made known to those who are in Christ, those who do not follow the law of the letter, but the law of the Spirit. and they bare much fruit of life since they have the Holy Spirit of God rather than the spirit of the world which is dead and cold.

the old man needs to die while the new man, which is Christ/of the seed of promise/of the body of Christ is commanded by God to increase and multiply. God gave the command to increase and multiply to our spirit and soul, and so if God commanded it, it means we can either obey Him with our will or not obey. we can not increase our physical stature by our own will, but we can increase our spiritual stature by abiding in Christ. the law of God can only be known by the Spirit of God. therefore fallen man only sees with his fallen nature, and so the law of sin and death is the result. and we who are crucified with Christ die to that law so that we live in the newness of Christ who is the life.
 
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Habakk

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We are redemed from sin, and we are redeemed from the curse of the law. Saved by grace through faith that we might now be legaly justified before God.

If you have a motoring offence for speeding in your car, then someone pays your fine (redemption price) and justifies your case. You are then no longer under the curse, brought on by the penalty of the law.

And now you are redeemed to go and drive your car as fast as you like because you obtained unmerited favour and are free of all debts and laws.

The cops can never ever accuse you of speeding again because you have liberty and are free of the old law. Break as many speeding laws as you like from now on and boast about your liberty, because your redeemer will automatically pay your fines and justify you.

And this is grace, Right? No, of course not.

Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage (Galatians 5: 1).

How do we avoid becoming entangled again? Jesus gave a clue when he said “…go and sin no more.” What! A commandment! He also said "f you love me, keep my commandments."

The real problem is that some Christians are making grace an unworkable concept and rendering it null and void. That is something we must never do, it cost our saviour everything.
 
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thereselittleflower

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The New Testament tells us in the book of Hebrews God made the Old Covenant, which includes it's laws, obsolete and was immently passing away - those words were written few years before the Temple of Jerusalem was destroyed.

When one delves into the original language, the words used are powerful.

The scriptures have this to say about the law - it was passing away - at the time these words were penned:
Hebrews 8:13 In that He says, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.
If we look into the original Greek, we see several things:



________________________________


"He has made the first "obsolete""
_________________________________


The word "obsolete" is in the Perfect Tense, Active Voice, Indicative Mood in the Greek.
The Perfect Tense means this:
5778 Tense - Perfect
The perfect tense in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes an action which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, .
The Active Voice indicates the doer of the action, which is God as the context of the previous verses show.


The Indicative Mood tells us that this is a statement of fact.



So what is this a statement of fact of?

That the Old Covenant was made obsolete at the time of the Apostles. The Greek word Translated "obsolete" means this:

Lexicon Results for palaioō (Strong's G3822) Greek for G3822 παλαιόω Transliteration
palaioō
Pronunciation
pä-lī-o'-ō (Key)
Part of Speech
verb
Root Word (Etymology)
from G3820
TDNT Reference
5:720,769
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) to make ancient or old

a) to become old, to be worn out
b) of things worn out by time and use
2) to declare a thing to be old and so about to be abrogated
The Old Covenant, "worn out" "about to be abrogated"

According to Thayer's Lexicon, the meaning used here in Heb 8:13 is "to declare a thing to be old and about to be abrogated"

The word "abrogated" is a very important word here.
It means:

Repealed,
annulled,
cancelled,
abolished by authority.

(Definitions of abrogated on the Web)
http://www.mindmagi.demon.co.uk/Baco...e/glossary.htm
Hebrews 8:13 tells us that God, the doer of the action, made the Old Covenant obsolete . . in other words: abrogated ... in other words:
    • He REPEALED it
    • He ANNULLED it
    • He CANCELLED it
    • He ABOLISHED it BY HIS AUTHORITY
The Perfect tense of this word means that this was a COMPLETED ACTION, with NOTHING remaining to be done to make it so.
The OLD COVENANT PASSED AWAY . . it was repealed, annuled, cancelled, abolished by God's own authority, perfectly, completely, with nothing remaining to be added.

The verse goes on to emphasize that the Old Covenant is finished, done with . . .

It says:


_________________________________


.....Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away
_________________________________



Another translation says it this way, more forcefully:
.....Now that which decayeth and waxeth old [is] ready to vanish away.
"waxeth old":

Lexicon Results for gēraskō (Strong's G1095) Greek for G1095 γηράσκω Transliteration
gēraskō
Pronunciation
gā-rä'-skō (Key)
Part of Speech
verb
Root Word (Etymology)
from G1094
TDNT Reference
n/a
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) to grow old

2) of things and institutions: to fail from age, be obsolescent

According to Thayer's Lexicon, this second definition applies to this word in Hebrews 8:13:
of things, institutions, etc., to fail from age, be obsolecent: Heb viii. 13 (to be deprived of force and authority....)
"OBSOLESCENT"

no longer in use; outmoded
uhaweb.hartford.edu/BUCKBERRO/vocabulary2_22.html
This Greek words translated "Decayth" (Obsolete) and "Passing Away" (Waxeth Old) are in the Present Tense . . which means these are simple statements of fact views as occuring in actual time at the time author wrote those words.

When those words were penned, the Old Covenant had already been decaying and passing away.
These are powerful words, underscoring that the Old Covenant has indeed been ABROGATED, REPEALED, ANNULLED, CANCELLED, ABOLISHED, DEPRIVED OF FORCE AND AUTHORITY.

And we go on:


_________________________________


.....Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away
_________________________________


"ready to"
Printed from the Blue Letter Bible

Lexicon Results for eggys (Strong's G1451) Greek for G1451 ἐγγύς Transliteration
eggys
Pronunciation
en-gü's (Key)
Part of Speech
adverb
Root Word (Etymology)
from a primary verb agcho (to squeeze or throttle; akin to the base of G43)
TDNT Reference
2:330,194
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) near, of place and position
a) near
b) those who are near access to God

1) Jews, as opposed to those who are alien from God and his blessings
2) The Rabbis used the term "to make nigh" as equivalent to "to make a proselyte"

2) of time
a) of times imminent and soon to come pass
Again, Thayer's Lexicon confirms that the meaning of this word here in Heb 8:13 is the 2nd meaning, "of times imminent and soon to come to pass".


"IMMINENT"
: ready to take place; especially: hanging threateningly over one's head <was in imminent danger of being run over>

Imminent - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster Dictionary

This continues to accentuate the fact that the Old Covenant is in actuality, NO MORE.
"TO VANISH AWAY":
Lexicon Results for aphanismos (Strong's G854) Greek for G854 &#7936;&#966;&#945;&#957;&#953;&#963;&#956;&#8057;&#962; Transliteration
aphanismos
Pronunciation
ä-fä-n&#275;-smo's (Key)
Part of Speech
masculine noun
Root Word (Etymology)
from G853
TDNT Reference
n/a
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) disappearance

2) destruction

Thayer's Lexicon again confirms the 2nd definition is used here . . DESTRUCTION.

This clearly tells that the Old Covenant was about to be destroyed, at any time now, from the perspective of the time of its writing.

This was written shortly before the destruction of the temple in 70AD.

Christianity has historically understood Old Covenant had been
ABROGATED
REPEALED,
ANNULLED,
CANCELLED,
ABOLISHED,
DEPRIVED OF FORCE AND AUTHORITY

and finally
DESTROYED
shortly after these words were penned in the book of Hebrews.


In 70 AD the Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed and the seige and starvation of city of Jerusalem occured. This has always been recognized by Christianity the definitive Act of God signifying the Old Covenanat, with its laws, power and authority, had indeed fully passed away and was no more, the New Covenant having taken its place once and for all time.
 
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bugkiller

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Man has always been obliged by God to fulfill the greatest commandments, to love Him and neighbor, simply because this is what He created man for-this is man's justice/righteousness/holiness, and via these commandments the Law and Prohets are summed up and fulfilled; love is how they're fulfilled by the Spirit rather than by the letter.
Nope. It that were true there is no free will. Then one could easliy say we have no choice in the matter resulting in being robots without a God given independant will under our control. That being the case there could be no sin of any kind.

This is demanded under the law. Under grace this is a decision of the individual. This decision does have consequences.

bugkiller
 
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bugkiller

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Chapter 13 of the same letter sums up the law in not harming your neighbour . but more specific to your question says .. the only debt left outstanding is to love one another . because this fulfills the law.

So it just means we are no longer obligated .. period . we are prompted by love .. as John teaches in his letters .. instead.
:thumbsup::amen: prompted by love and not rote letters of the law. I should hope that all would understand this.

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Some say we are only obligated to some law such as the 10 Cs and not the whole law. It is claimed that we are not obligated to the ceremonial laws. But Scripture says laws against us. Is ceremonal things not celebrating? How could they be against us? What is wrong with celebrating?

Still others seem to say that we are redeemed from some man made oral law. Why would God care about man's requirements?

Paul and James both say all the law or none. Some say as I indicated only part of the law. What is right? Is there some indication in Scripture for a partial severance from the law?

So what law is it that Romans 7:6 says we are delivered from?

Hope this makes sense to some here. It is just that there seems to be lots of fog on the matter of the law. I just do not understand why.

bugkiller

The question itself is entirely too simplistic and demands a 'one or the other' response.

God has not changed. Good is acceptable with God. Evil is not. This has not changed from the beginning.

A lot of grace people think that because the 'commands' were nailed to the cross that somehow God no longer judges any evil or sin. That is entirely not the case nor does the N.T. make that case whatsoever.

Law or no law. Grace or no grace.

God has not justified sin or evil, period. And never will.

God presently tolerates all such matters to a certain extent. But at some point all of these matters of sin and evil will be permanently put away as a reality.

Some grace people have also deluded themselves into thinking that is their factual position and content currently [free of every sin and evil]

and that also is not the case.


The question then is far too simplistic for complex topic matter. It's quite ridiculous to demand a one or the other answer on this subject.

s
 
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bugkiller

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We are redemed from sin, and we are redeemed from the curse of the law. Saved by grace through faith that we might now be legaly justified before God.

If you have a motoring offence for speeding in your car, then someone pays your fine (redemption price) and justifies your case. You are then no longer under the curse, brought on by the penalty of the law.

And now you are redeemed to go and drive your car as fast as you like because you obtained unmerited favour and are free of all debts and laws.

The cops can never ever accuse you of speeding again because you have liberty and are free of the old law. Break as many speeding laws as you like from now on and boast about your liberty, because your redeemer will automatically pay your fines and justify you.

And this is grace, Right? No, of course not.

Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage (Galatians 5: 1).

How do we avoid becoming entangled again? Jesus gave a clue when he said “…go and sin no more.” What! A commandment! He also said "f you love me, keep my commandments."

The real problem is that some Christians are making grace an unworkable concept and rendering it null and void. That is something we must never do, it cost our saviour everything.
You should try again to make your case. The paying of a fine (penalty) does not justify ever nor does it releas one from the violated law.

The redemption provided by God through His only begotten Son, Jesus redeems from the law prior to an event (violation). It does not redeem (pay a penalty) so one can do evil again and again. This redemption changes the heart and desire. The paying of a penalty does not do this. It does not even cause repentance in some cases.

One can not be charged with violating a superceeded law.

bugkiller
 
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Steve Petersen

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May 11, 2005
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The New Testament tells us in the book of Hebrews God made the Old Covenant, which includes it's laws, obsolete and was immently passing away - those words were written few years before the Temple of Jerusalem was destroyed.

When one delves into the original language, the words used are powerful.

The scriptures have this to say about the law - it was passing away - at the time these words were penned:
Hebrews 8:13 In that He says, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.
If we look into the original Greek, we see several things:



________________________________


"He has made the first "obsolete""
_________________________________


The word "obsolete" is in the Perfect Tense, Active Voice, Indicative Mood in the Greek.
The Perfect Tense means this:
5778 Tense - Perfect
The perfect tense in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes an action which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, .
The Active Voice indicates the doer of the action, which is God as the context of the previous verses show.


The Indicative Mood tells us that this is a statement of fact.



So what is this a statement of fact of?

That the Old Covenant was made obsolete at the time of the Apostles. The Greek word Translated "obsolete" means this:

Lexicon Results for palaio&#333; (Strong's G3822) Greek for G3822 &#960;&#945;&#955;&#945;&#953;&#972;&#969; Transliteration
palaio&#333;
Pronunciation
pä-l&#299;-o'-&#333; (Key)
Part of Speech
verb
Root Word (Etymology)
from G3820
TDNT Reference
5:720,769
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) to make ancient or old

a) to become old, to be worn out
b) of things worn out by time and use
2) to declare a thing to be old and so about to be abrogated
The Old Covenant, "worn out" "about to be abrogated"

According to Thayer's Lexicon, the meaning used here in Heb 8:13 is "to declare a thing to be old and about to be abrogated"

The word "abrogated" is a very important word here.
It means:

Repealed,
annulled,
cancelled,
abolished by authority.

(Definitions of abrogated on the Web)
http://www.mindmagi.demon.co.uk/Baco...e/glossary.htm
Hebrews 8:13 tells us that God, the doer of the action, made the Old Covenant obsolete . . in other words: abrogated ... in other words:
    • He REPEALED it
    • He ANNULLED it
    • He CANCELLED it
    • He ABOLISHED it BY HIS AUTHORITY
The Perfect tense of this word means that this was a COMPLETED ACTION, with NOTHING remaining to be done to make it so.
The OLD COVENANT PASSED AWAY . . it was repealed, annuled, cancelled, abolished by God's own authority, perfectly, completely, with nothing remaining to be added.

The verse goes on to emphasize that the Old Covenant is finished, done with . . .

It says:


_________________________________


.....Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away
_________________________________



Another translation says it this way, more forcefully:
.....Now that which decayeth and waxeth old [is] ready to vanish away.
"waxeth old":

Lexicon Results for g&#275;rask&#333; (Strong's G1095) Greek for G1095 &#947;&#951;&#961;&#940;&#963;&#954;&#969; Transliteration
g&#275;rask&#333;
Pronunciation
g&#257;-rä'-sk&#333; (Key)
Part of Speech
verb
Root Word (Etymology)
from G1094
TDNT Reference
n/a
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) to grow old

2) of things and institutions: to fail from age, be obsolescent

According to Thayer's Lexicon, this second definition applies to this word in Hebrews 8:13:
of things, institutions, etc., to fail from age, be obsolecent: Heb viii. 13 (to be deprived of force and authority....)
"OBSOLESCENT"

no longer in use; outmoded
uhaweb.hartford.edu/BUCKBERRO/vocabulary2_22.html
This Greek words translated "Decayth" (Obsolete) and "Passing Away" (Waxeth Old) are in the Present Tense . . which means these are simple statements of fact views as occuring in actual time at the time author wrote those words.

When those words were penned, the Old Covenant had already been decaying and passing away.
These are powerful words, underscoring that the Old Covenant has indeed been ABROGATED, REPEALED, ANNULLED, CANCELLED, ABOLISHED, DEPRIVED OF FORCE AND AUTHORITY.

And we go on:


_________________________________


.....Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away
_________________________________


"ready to"
Printed from the Blue Letter Bible

Lexicon Results for eggys (Strong's G1451) Greek for G1451 &#7952;&#947;&#947;&#973;&#962; Transliteration
eggys
Pronunciation
en-gü's (Key)
Part of Speech
adverb
Root Word (Etymology)
from a primary verb agcho (to squeeze or throttle; akin to the base of G43)
TDNT Reference
2:330,194
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) near, of place and position
a) near
b) those who are near access to God

1) Jews, as opposed to those who are alien from God and his blessings
2) The Rabbis used the term "to make nigh" as equivalent to "to make a proselyte"

2) of time
a) of times imminent and soon to come pass
Again, Thayer's Lexicon confirms that the meaning of this word here in Heb 8:13 is the 2nd meaning, "of times imminent and soon to come to pass".


"IMMINENT"
: ready to take place; especially: hanging threateningly over one's head <was in imminent danger of being run over>

Imminent - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster Dictionary

This continues to accentuate the fact that the Old Covenant is in actuality, NO MORE.
"TO VANISH AWAY":
Lexicon Results for aphanismos (Strong's G854) Greek for G854 &#7936;&#966;&#945;&#957;&#953;&#963;&#956;&#972;&#962; Transliteration
aphanismos
Pronunciation
ä-fä-n&#275;-smo's (Key)
Part of Speech
masculine noun
Root Word (Etymology)
from G853
TDNT Reference
n/a
Vines
View Entry

Outline of Biblical Usage
1) disappearance

2) destruction

Thayer's Lexicon again confirms the 2nd definition is used here . . DESTRUCTION.

This clearly tells that the Old Covenant was about to be destroyed, at any time now, from the perspective of the time of its writing.

This was written shortly before the destruction of the temple in 70AD.

Christianity has historically understood Old Covenant had been
ABROGATED
REPEALED,
ANNULLED,
CANCELLED,
ABOLISHED,
DEPRIVED OF FORCE AND AUTHORITY

and finally
DESTROYED
shortly after these words were penned in the book of Hebrews.


In 70 AD the Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed and the seige and starvation of city of Jerusalem occured. This has always been recognized by Christianity the definitive Act of God signifying the Old Covenanat, with its laws, power and authority, had indeed fully passed away and was no more, the New Covenant having taken its place once and for all time.

Jesus must be wrong then. He said this in Luke 16:17

17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

Since you are a fan of the Greek, look up #4098 in your Thayers. It is the Greek word translated as 'fail' in the text above.

It means to lose authority, to no longer have force SPECIFICALLY in this verse.

So, Jesus said:

It is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than for one tittle of the law to lose authority.
 
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