Just to be clear … My foundational principle in research has always been to allow the Word of God to interpret itself…and see how it fits together. I am not hell-bent on seeing what I want to believe… because what I want, doesn’t matter. “what does the Word dictate” … that is what I will believe ….
99% of the time the Word of God will give us an answer by using basic keys in research which boils down in many respects to…. in the verse, in the context, and how is the word or phrase used in first and previous applications. Obviously, it’s considerably more involved, but in the end ….the Bible does interpret itself and God defines what He wants us to know … sometimes it takes some digging, but most time it’s relatively simple …. It’s man that confounds things (generally speaking) by attempting to prove what they believe….and I do everything feasible not to swim in that pool ….
The words
falling away come from the Greek noun
Apostasia. Apo meaning
“away from” and
stasia meaning
“to stand”
The noun occurs twice. Once in
Act 21:21 and the other in
2Th 2:3
Act 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Here in Acts… James and the elders in Jerusalem accused the Apostle Paul of teaching the Judeans to
forsake Moses’s teachings, like circumcision and other customs that they held…this is clearly a
departure from their teachings.
Forsake is probably not a bad translation, but it’s nowhere near a
falling away.
The definition of falling away apostacy
This verse in Acts as well as the verb form in
1Ti 4:1 make a distinction. The verse in
Act 21:21 they are speaking about
departing or forsaking Moses,
circumcision, and customs. In
1Ti 4:1 the Word makes the qualifying distinction of “
the faith”.
In
1Ti 4:1 … some shall depart from the faith …
the distinction in this verse is with “
the faith” in using the verb form
aphistēmi. And since the
noun apostasia (used in
2Th 2:3)…. is derived from the
verb, it behooves us to check them out.
Luk 2:37 =
departed Act 5:37 = drew away*
Act 19:9 =
departed 1Ti 6:5 = withdraw*
Luk 4:13 =
departed Act 5:38 = refrain*
Act 22:29 =
departed 2Ti 2:19 =
depart
Luk 8:13 = fall away*
Act 12:10 =
departed 2Co 12:8 =
depart Heb 3:12=
departing
Luk 13:27 =
depart Act 15:38 =
departed 1Ti 4:1 =
depart
Eleven of the 15 x
aphistēmi (the verb form of
apostasia) is translated
depart,
departed, or
departing…and 1x as
fall away, 1x as
refrain, 1x as
drew away and 1x as
withdraw. Of which those last 4 could easily be translated depart, departed, or departing and have it fit and read accurately.
The use of the cognitive neuter noun apostasion all 3 deal with divorcement (departure)
Mat 5:31,
Mat 19:7,
Mar 10:4.
To conclude
2Th 2:3 is falling away
from the faith is as ludicrous as concluding that
2Th 2:3 is a falling away from
Moses and the circumcision (actually
Act 21:21 would be the more responsible conclusion if we were going that route ….as they are both a feminine noun)
We don’t get to add words based on our assumption and clearly there is no justification to add either
Moses or
the faith in
2Th 2:3.
But for those who can conclude that the word should be translated a
falling away ….after seeing how it is used as a verb… and as a cognitive neuter noun ….that is fine, whatever floats your belief…. I can live with that…. it does not alter the rapture conclusion one bit. However… you don’t get to add any words such as
the faith to the conclusion of your belief…. unless you are God. If God had wanted the word
faith in there …it would be there …it’s not. And there is
no place in the context of
2Th 2:3 that depicts…. a falling away
from the faith.