Thanks for at least commenting on each verse that is progress. So if I understand you correctly, 1 Corin.1:8, 1 Corin. 5:5, 2 Corin. 1:14, Philip. 1:6, Philip. 1:10 all refer to the (rapture) resurrection. 2 Thess. 2:2 was not as clear the way you answered I believe you said that too was the (rapture) resurrection ,but then you seem to change that position and say you cannot make these two days the same.
So we are left with 1 Thess 5:2 and 2 Peter 3:10 as referring back to the OT “day of darkness and wrath” your words.
My question was “In which of the following passages can we say from the text “the day” is a period of time such as a 7 year tribulation?”. You really didn’t specifically answer my question or you do not think any of them refer to a period of time. You only said “it is a day of darkness and wrath”. Please clarify??
Let’s take them one at a time.
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My conclusion. Day of Christ, Day of the Lord or any variation thereof are the same event.
I thought about this for hours yesterday. I believe for the moment that I agree with you: they are the same, but from a different perspective! But we must differentiate from the beginning of an event and the ending of the say event. Peter spoke of the Day of the Lord and the earth being burned up. So it seems a new heaven and new earth time frame is still a part of the Day of the Lord.
Isa 13:9-10
9) Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, cruel both with wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it. (10) For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened in his going forth, and the moon shall not cause her light to shine.”
Here we see that the START of the Day is a cruel start and with Wrath. I see that John and Paul are in perfect agreement. I see the rapture as the trigger for the Day by Paul in 1 Thes. 4 & 5.
I find Paul's rapture will be a moment before the great earthquake at the 6th seal and indeed, the dead in Christ rising as the cause of the earthquake. And John then wrote, "the day of His wrath has come." So the day of the Lord BEGINS with "Sudden destruction."
I agree, 1 Thes. 5 follows 1 Thes. 4 and Paul did NOT change the subject.
I believe this is what Paul is teaching there:
A suddenly is coming. It will be the dead in Christ flying up out of the ground into the air. It will happen at a time of peace and safety. It will cause a great earthquake.
Then Paul tells us, at the SUDDEN event, two groups of people get two different results: those living in Christ get "salvation" and get to "live together with Him." This is saying exactly the same thing as "so shall we ever be with the Lord" from chapter 4, again tying chapter 5 to chapter 4. Therefore, Paul is telling us in his choice of the word "salvation" that the WAY get get to "live together with Him" is that we are caught up before the earthquake harms us. We as those "in Christ" get raptured, while those living in the darkness get "sudden destruction." Paul then compares this sudden destruction to the "Day of the Lord." And this "Day of the Lord is certainly tied right back to the rapture in chapter 4. This is why I say the rapture will be the trigger for the DAY.
When I study Revelation, I see the trumpet judgments and vials as very much a part of the Day of the Lord as God destroying the world (as the Old Testament prophets described the DAY) and destroying the sinners in it. And from what I read, it would be impossible for "the DAY" to be only one day long! Just one trumpet judgment lasts for months.
My perspective then, is that this period of time, lasting at least for the 7 years, and probably also includes the Millennial reign of Christ will begin with the rapture, as the trigger, and then the time of judgment for the sinner, but a time of joy for the believer. It is the say period of time, but different groups of people get different results. For the believer, Paul called this time "the day of Christ, which will start with the rapture, then include the judgment seat of Christ, our 7 plus years in heaven, enjoying the marriage and supper in heaven, returning with Christ to whip the antichrist and his armies, then on into the millennial reign.
Paul just put a new name on it to see it from the perspective of the believer.
coming as a “thief in the night” shows a quick and swift one time event.
"Coming" is the BEGINNING of the Day, not the entire day. It begins with His coming for the rapture, and that rapture will trigger all the rest of the Day.
Nothing in this entire passage even hints that “we” “us” will be removed.
The clear implication is that we are still here and will not be surprised by what is to take place to “them”.
Not true! When Paul wrote we will be caught up in chapter 4, and "so shall we ever be with the Lord," that is removal. When Paul wrote in chapter 5, "we shall live together with Him," that is removal.
If day of the Lord in chapter 5 here is the same as the day in chapter 4 it is also the same as the day in 2 Thess 2:1-3
I agree. I see this as the same period of time, but with two persepctives: those living in the light, versus those living in the darkness. But I see this entire period of time STARTING with Christ coming as a thief in the night (a time totally unexpected) and the dead in Christ rising is the very first event, with those alive in Christ following a moment later.
But the dead in Christ rising will be the cause of the "sudden destruction" start of the bad part of "the Day" when judgment and wrath come. So it starts out great for those in the light, and ends up terrible for those in the darkness. From the perspective of those living in the light of the gospel, it is "the day of Christ, where we get to "live together with Him." From the perspective of the sinner, it is "the day of the Lord," a dark day of judgment.
So the START of the day is the rapture. Paul makes this clear. But then begins judgment that will last for 7 years.
This fits 2 Thes. 2. They were troubled because Paul had taught them the rapture would come before the time of judgment, but it seemed by the persecution they were IN judgment. Then perhaps they received a letter that TOLD them they were in the day of the Lord. No wonder they were upset. They thought either Paul was wrong or they had missed the rapture.
Paul's argument is to prove to them that "The DAY" had not come, and they were NOT in it. His argument was that the man of sin revealed would be proof positive that the DAY (from the perspective of the sinner - judgment) would then be present. In other words, man of sin revealed equals Day of the Lord present.
Now you will remind me that Paul used "day of Christ" here. But it seems we agree it is the same period of time, with different titles depending on perspective.
I have looked at many translations. It seems the preferred translation now is "day of the Lord." I agree, for it is what Paul used in his first letter.