What is wrong with Jesus died spiritually doctrine?

disciple Clint

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Aussie Pete

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Can someone help me understand why this doctrine is said to be in error.
The problem as I see it is the definition of death. What does it mean? It surely does not mean the end of existence. Lord Jesus committed His Spirit to God. Some would say that God did not accept it. That is ridiculous. God is not going to reject Himself. Sin was interred in the human body of Christ, not in His Spirit. Exactly when the Lord Jesus received His resurrection body is not clear, but I believe it was when He descended into the grave. He preached to the imprisoned spirits. That implies that He was in His resurrected state already.
 
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disciple Clint

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The problem as I see it is the definition of death. What does it mean? It surely does not mean the end of existence. Lord Jesus committed His Spirit to God. Some would say that God did not accept it. That is ridiculous. God is not going to reject Himself. Sin was interred in the human body of Christ, not in His Spirit. Exactly when the Lord Jesus received His resurrection body is not clear, but I believe it was when He descended into the grave. He preached to the imprisoned spirits. That implies that He was in His resurrected state already.
I see some Christological and Theological issues with sin entering into the body of Jesus. Since Jesus is preaching to spirits why would he need to be in His resurrected state?
 
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Aussie Pete

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disciple Clint

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You could be right about the preaching to the spirits. I don't think it matters. As for your first point,

"He Himself bore our sins in His body on the tree, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. “By His stripes you are healed". 1 Peter 2:24.
Jesus is God, God cannot sin. Jesus is one person with two natures He is not split into two individuals. If one nature had sin the other nature would also have sin. Jesus in impeccable, He cannot sin
Albert Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible
Who his own self - See the notes at Hebrews 1:3, on the phrase “when he had by himself purged our sins.” The meaning is, that he did it in his own proper person; he did not make expiation by offering a bloody victim, but was himself the sacrifice.

Bare our sins - There is an allusion here undoubtedly to Isaiah 53:4, Isaiah 53:12. See the meaning of the phrase “to bear sins” fully considered in the notes at those places. As this cannot mean that Christ so took upon himself the sins of people as to become himself a sinner, it must mean that he put himself in the place of sinners, and bore that which those sins deserved; that is, that he endured in his own person that which, if it had been inflicted on the sinner himself, would have been a proper expression of the divine displeasure against sin, or would have been a proper punishment for sin. See the notes at 2 Corinthians 5:21. He was treated as if he had been a sinner, in order that we might be treated as if we had not sinned; that is, as if we were righteous. There is no other way in which we can conceive that one bears the sins of another. They cannot be literally transferred to another; and all that can be meant is, that he should take the consequences on himself, and suffer as if he had committed the transgressions himself.
 
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Aussie Pete

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Jesus is God, God cannot sin. Jesus is one person with two natures He is not split into two individuals. If one nature had sin the other nature would also have sin. Jesus in impeccable, He cannot sin
Albert Barnes' Notes on the Whole Bible
Who his own self - See the notes at Hebrews 1:3, on the phrase “when he had by himself purged our sins.” The meaning is, that he did it in his own proper person; he did not make expiation by offering a bloody victim, but was himself the sacrifice.

Bare our sins - There is an allusion here undoubtedly to Isaiah 53:4, Isaiah 53:12. See the meaning of the phrase “to bear sins” fully considered in the notes at those places. As this cannot mean that Christ so took upon himself the sins of people as to become himself a sinner, it must mean that he put himself in the place of sinners, and bore that which those sins deserved; that is, that he endured in his own person that which, if it had been inflicted on the sinner himself, would have been a proper expression of the divine displeasure against sin, or would have been a proper punishment for sin. See the notes at 2 Corinthians 5:21. He was treated as if he had been a sinner, in order that we might be treated as if we had not sinned; that is, as if we were righteous. There is no other way in which we can conceive that one bears the sins of another. They cannot be literally transferred to another; and all that can be meant is, that he should take the consequences on himself, and suffer as if he had committed the transgressions himself.
I disagree, you won't change so I've said all I'm going to say on this subject.
 
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