Clare73
Blood-bought
- Jun 12, 2012
- 29,094
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- US-Republican
To believe it's about imputed guilt of Adam, is something we can hold to be true, not what it literally says. Of course I understand it is because of guilt (just pointed out it doesn't literally say it), but what guilt? You say of Adam's sin, I say of our own sin.
BSB Romans 5:18
So then, just as one trespass brought condemnation for all men (from living in sin because of the inherited fallen nature), so also one act of righteousness brought justification and life for all men. (through living a new life because of Christ's righteousness received through the Holy Spirit)
BSB Romans 5:19
For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners (through their own sins because of the inherited fallen nature), so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.(through living a new life through Christ's righteousness)
No, they don't "fit just as good."I don't show you this to convince you I'm right. I don't care if you believe it or not.
What I care about is that you see there are different available interpretations of the text, that fits just as good. But from our discussions so far, I don't see you very open to acknowledge this. And this is where I think you should reconsider.
"What you care about" is incorrect.
For your "interpretation" of imputed righteousness is not in agreement with its presentation in Genesis 15:6 and Romans 4:2-3 where it is ascribed/counted as/credited to/reckoned to Abraham simply because he believed, not because of anything (works) he did, and where that principle is applied to the NT in Romans 4:1-11.
Not being familiar with the issue of Romans 1-5--all righteousness is only from God (Romans 3:21), you seek to interpret it outside that context.
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