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1) Through Adam, all men were banished to East of Eden. All men inherited the capacity to sin and the sinful nature.
2) Christ died on the Cross for the atonement of sin. However, all men are not back in Eden.
3) The Christians are still in East of Eden but not of East of Eden. (Psalm 23 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death)
Looks like it. . .All men did inherit the nature of Adam.
All men after Christ did not inherit the Christian nature.
Does that mean limited atonement?
I don't understand. Jesus redeemed (paid) for the sin of Adam and for the individual sin of the redeemed (Christian)And not only that, it's a matter of justice, of God requiring payment twice for the same sin, once by Jesus and then again by the condemned.
No, the nature does not at birth, but the imputation of Adam's sin/guilt (which is the pattern for the imputation of Christ's righteousness, Romans 5:14) does make us guilty of sin at birth.
No, we do not inherit sin and guilt (Deuteronomy 24:16; Ezekiel 18:20).
It is imputed by God (Romans 5:12-18).
Which does not make us guilty of it, anymore than the rattlesnake is guilty for being born a rattlesnake.
He is guilty, however, of poisoning when he does so. . .and if he wants to live in my backyard, he must be "cleansed" of that ability to poison.
1) Through Adam, all men were banished to East of Eden. All men inherited the capacity to sin and the sinful nature.
2) Christ died on the Cross for the atonement of sin. However, all men are not back in Eden.
3) The Christians are still in East of Eden but not of East of Eden. (Psalm 23 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death)
All men did inherit the nature of Adam.
All men after Christ did not inherit the Christianot nature.
Does that mean limited atonement?
Looks like it. . .
And not only that, it's a matter of justice, of God requiring payment twice for the same sin, once by Jesus and then again by the condemned.
I am quite comfortable with entrusting that to God.Thanks for your thoughts! I don't have that much to say about it. But concerning imputation of Adam's guilt,
what will then happen with unborn babies, since that means they are guilty?
Did he?We are first reconciled when we come to faith, first then have our sins been atoned. But
Christ died as the atoning sacrifice for every single man, woman and child, the whole world if you will.
Yes, Christ's first coming was not to judge the world, but to save the world.John 3:16-17 - It seems like "the world" in John 3:17 includes those who never receives Christ, so I find it natural that those are also included in John 3:16.
For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but
that the world might be saved through Him.
— John 3:17
If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world.
— John 12:47
I am quite comfortable with entrusting that to God.
There is no Biblical reason his election would not apply in their case also (Romans 8:29-30).
Did he?
Yes, Christ's first coming was not to judge the world, but to save the world.
However, his second coming is to judge the world.
Is "world" all without exception (every man), or all without distinction (Gentile as well as Jew)?
Does the just God require payment twice for the same sin, once by Christ and then a second time by the condemned?
I entrust it to God. . .don't need to figure it out.Hm, you believe God gives spontaneous faith to unborn children? Interesting! Or
you don't think they need faith?
"Whosoever believes" is not "all without exception."My old post which I reposted shows "the world" in John 3:16 is all without exception.
So Christ didn't actually pay for everyone's sin, his atonement was only for the elect.Discuss that someone who believes God requires payment twice.
I entrust it to God. . .don't need to figure it out.
Of course, sis!
Yes... But what has that to do with my argument?
My old post which I reposted shows "the world" in John 3:16 is all without exception.
Discuss that someone who believes God requires payment twice.
Indeed, it is.Sometimes we need to do that. But
it is not consistent with Adam's sin being imputed to all men.
Indeed, it is.
God is sovereign.
That question causes me to realize that I don't see things of the word of God as a problem.It's very hard for you to admit when your theology brings a problem. Why is that? Why not just say: "I know it's a problem, but I believe God covers it somehow." It's not like it is going to debunk your whole theology.
"Whosoever believes" is not "all without exception.
Who does?That question causes me to realize that I don't see things the things of the word of God as a problem.
Agreed. . .God saves no one who does not believe in and trust on the atoning work (blood, Romans 3:25) of Jesus Christ for the remission of their sin and right standing with God's justice; i.e, "not guilty," declared righteous (sin removed) by the righteousness (obedience) of Jesus Christ (on the cross).
If sinful people reject the sacrifice of Jesus then and only then will the sinful person have to pay the penalty him/herself.Looks like it. . .
And not only that, it's a matter of justice, of God requiring payment twice for the same sin, once by Jesus and then again by the condemned.
No. Apparently I haven't told you, or you haven't been listening. Human will is one of many tools God uses to accomplish his will. God works through means. Human choice is real, with real, even eternal, consequences.In Calvinism: Is only God’s will effective? Yes or no.
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