What evidence do you have for that? The assumption of bronze age Hebrew culture, like many others, was that the wife is property of the husband. It's only later among Jews and Christians, studying their scriptures in a broader way, do they come to the conclusion that men and women are equal, and even here in varies from religious group to religious group (Orthodox Jewish males still have a prayer thanking God they were not born a woman).
Levirite laws do not count in this discussion, because it has to do with begetting children not sex per se, so I'm confused where you get the idea that the Old Testament establishes that women have a right to sex.
I am not considering leverite marriage in this discussion.
I AM considering the Mishnah and Talmuds. They offer a good view of first century Judaism and probably back several centuries before that. The Mishnah lists (pulled from historic marriage contracts) how often a husband was to offer sexual satisfaction to his wife, based on his occupation. It also says the wife can sue in a rabbinic court to make him change professions if he is in one that is not giving her enough. (like a sailor or traveling merchant) Many occupations that did not involve travel or were not physically too taxing it was supposed to be every day. In 1 Cor 7 Paul writes that abstaining "for a season for prayer" was allowable. The grandfather of his mentor Hillel stated in the previous century that it was allowable for a maximum of one week. His contemporary Rabbi Shammai said 2 weeks max.
As to the OT justification for that, it comes from Ex 21. While talking specifically about slave wives, the priests and later the rabbis reasoned if God was concerned about the sexual satisfaction of slave wives, how much
more was He concerned with free wives?
7 “If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do.
8 If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her.
9 If he designates her for his son, he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters.
10 If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her
conjugal rights.
He not only cannot stop having sex with her, he cannot even reduce the frequency.
There is no such verse anywhere in the OT that says a wife has to have sex with her husband. So the priests and rabbis considered a husband's satisfaction to be unimportant.
BTW - wives were NEVER considered "property" in Jewish culture. It is probably the ONLY bronze age culture that did not function that way.
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