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I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
The very first part of the Moral Argument so many people espouse is 'A moral law exists'.What do you mean by evidence? That the moral law exists is a first principle, an axiomatic assumption. Without it there are no limits on what we would be permitted to do, except materialistic concerns.
I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
The very first part of the Moral Argument so many people espouse is 'A moral law exists'.
If someone could say it doesn't exist then the argument is worth nothing.
I must wonder why people like William Lane Craig and Frank Turek spend so much time talking about it then.Right, that's because it's an assumption. There's no material proof for immaterial concepts, it's a starting off point from which we build our thoughts, otherwise moral language about anything becomes meaningless. There would then be no rules, no anything. The consequence of the thought that there is no morality is that there is nothing evil or good. Why indulge this thought? It just leads to nihilism.
Been a while since I've listened to William Lane Craig but I don't recall his view being substantively different from my own. He also takes the existence of morality for granted and builds his arguments on it.I must wonder why people like William Lane Craig and Frank Turek spend so much time talking about it then.
I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
Hebrews 10:16
"This is the covenant I will make with them after that time, says the Lord. I will put my laws in their hearts, and I will write them on their minds."
But who is the "them" and the "their?" It's those people with whom God has established a covenant-and as the writer of Hebrews points out, a covenant is made only by the shedding of blood.
The OP is asking us to prove this. As if we were in court. It will have to be proven by having enough of and powerful enough circumstantial evidence. This is because we are dealing with an abstract subject.That verse was a quote taken from Jeremiah and if that was all there was we could say God only wrote this upon the hearts of the Israelite's, but that isn't the only verse.
Romans 2:14-15
14 for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them)
Not just to the Israelite's but to us also.
That verse was a quote taken from Jeremiah and if that was all there was we could say God only wrote this upon the hearts of the Israelite's, but that isn't the only verse.
Romans 2:14-15
14 for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, 15 who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them)
Not just to the Israelite's but to us also.
The OP is asking us to prove this. As if we were in court. It will have to be proven by having enough of and powerful enough circumstantial evidence. This is because we are dealing with an abstract subject.
A cumulative argument is very helpful.I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
Hi Andy,I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.
If another person or organization did something that you felt was wrong, to you, a loved one, or a pet or animal, yet the act was legal, then you would know that your conscience was hitting against the moral law.I don't see how one could prove to someone that a moral law exists.