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Again, non sequitur. Doubling down doesn't magically change anything.
Yahshua didn't silence any Kings as he was put to death.
The onus is on you to prove that he sinned. Shifting the burden of proof is a logical fallacy.
The first covenant is with fault, we are to be presented faultless to Christ..
All were silenced by Christ, even the ones who were to put Him to death..
Matthew 22:34 But when the Pharisees had heard that he had put the Sadducees to silence, they were gathered together.
The first covenant was with Adam. Are you now suggesting that YHWH is unjust?
The Sadducees weren't Kings.
Are you suggesting that Paul was mistaken?
(CLV) Eph 5:21
being subject to one another in the fear of Christ.
I don't think Jesus would wish Christians to be in fear of him. The KJV has it fear of God.
Well now you know.
This is exactly the sort of reason why I stopped using the KJV, and switched to a literal translation.
χριστου
christou
OF-ANOINTed
of-Christ
G5547
I know I have no need for a literal version, because Jesus is our Lord and master ( to whom we fear Malachi 1:6)
For servants to be obedient to those who are their masters, ( according to the flesh) with fear and trembling, in singleness of heart, as unto Christ....
John 13:14 If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.
Ephesians 6:5 Servants, be obedient to them that are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ;
Then there's this.
1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. He that feareth is not made perfect in love.
"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell."
I take this to mean that if you are going to fear anyone fear God. However I don't believe that fear (terror) is necessary for salvation.
2 Corinthians 5:11 Knowing therefore the terror of the Lord, we persuade men; but we are made manifest unto God; and I trust also are made manifest in your consciences.
The “righteousness of God” is most accurately and fully defined by the term “love”, which is why the greatest commandments, for example, are what they are since love fulfills all other commands, i.e., the Law. And love acts, for the good of others, by its nature.What is righteousness?
Definition of righteous
1 : acting in accord with divine or moral law : free from guilt or sin
Definition of RIGHTEOUS
Should we take Webster's word for it?
What does YHWH say?
(CLV) Dt 6:25
So it shall come to be righteousness for us when we observe to do all this instruction before Yahweh our Elohim, just as He had enjoined on us.
I notice that YHWH requires us to "do" something.
Could this have changed since YHWH sent his own son to teach us obedience to his Torah?
(CLV) 1Jn 3:7
Little children, let no one be deceiving you. He who is doing righteousness is just, according as He is just.
There's that "do" word again.
Shabbat shalom.
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