First let me say that I had responded to this post and for some reason it must not have loaded. Grrrrr. I keep thinking you hadn't responded to me and when you said you wanted to keep the posts to you in the same place I thought you meant you would respond to both when you answered mine. Sorry.
I thought that post might have been somewhat confusing, sorry.
If God knows what it takes to bring you to Him, He will do it. That being said, if He knows that whatever He does in any situation you will deny it is Him, and you would do this in every possible world, you may be one of those that there is no way to allow you your free will and to save you. God says that all know He exists but they suppress that knowledge. I understand that these are not rhetorical questions and believe me I take it very seriously. I also get from your posts that you feel that you believe that God is immoral and not worthy of worship. He will allow you to make that assessment.
You seem to be saying that either God actually will eventually give me the major hint I need or he isn't bothering to give me a sign because I would refuse him no matter what. I think we can agree that the former option is of course completely unverifiable, but theoretically possible. But let's pretend that I'm minutes from death and I've still not gotten the obvious sing I need. In this case your only other option is that I actually would not have been convinced by the personal introduction-blindness-miracle thing. Speaking on my own behalf, I would say this is dead wrong, but again I suppose it's theoretically possible.
But even if I am wrong in thinking such an experience would convince me, I don't see how this fits with your claim that free will is important to God. If it is so important to him that I either choose him or deny him of my own free will, why would he never give me the sign I think I need so I can make my free will choice? Just because he knows I will still turn away? Isn't it violating my free will to deny me the chance to actually make the decision? If not, please explain.
I am going to concede this point because I am not sure if when taken on their own if they show progression.
One thing in studying the early Hebrew language and the way words were used and the difficulty in translation of the "intent" of the wording is not so cut and dried. Just like in times we have figures of speech that we recognize as not meant to be literal. Let's hit the road, doesn't mean that we are really literally going to go out and hit the road with our fists. If I say don't bite my head off if someone is angry with me, I don't literally mean that this person is going to literally bite my head off. We see this type of figures of speech in the Bible as well. In the case of David setting it up Uriah to be killed in battle. Nathan accusing David says: 2 Smauel 12:9 "You have killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword". We know that David did not literally do the killing. He actually sent a letter telling his general to put Uriah into the most vulnerable place in the battle. Both are accurate but we know that David didn't actually take a sword and kill Uriah. I think this is something of the same we see in the verses of God hardening the heart of Pharaoh. He didn't literally harden Pharaoh's heart but set up the circumstances that permitted Pharaoh to have to make a decision. He used His plagues and Moses to set up the circumstances that presented Pharaoh a way to reject God.
I assume from the argument that it is a figure of speech that you are not aware of any translations that suggest "The Lord hardened Pharaoh's heart" means the same thing as "Pharaoh hardened his heart". Is that correct?
I'm aware that figures of speech are used, but I don't think you've made a strong case for God hardening Pharaoh's heart being a figure of speech. It still seems to me that the fact that the author several times said that Pharaoh hardened his own heart indicates that something different was meant, i.e. that it was God, not Pharaoh, doing the heart hardening in this instance. What do you think about this distinction?
Now several time in this scenario we find that Pharaoh said that he would set the people free if the plague would be lifted and when the plague was lifted he would go back on his word and not let them go. So we already know that he lied about it before why do you think he wasn't lying when he said he'd let them go again?
I think you realize that I don't think that. I think that God gave plagues that could be replicated by the magicians so that Pharaoh could believe that God was not any more powerful than they were. I think that He could have forced the issue if He had sent horrendous plagues that lasted and lasted and forced Pharaoh into doing God's will but He chose to allow Pharaoh to reason against God if that is what he chose to do. Each time he said he'd let the people go and when he didn't and God didn't completely annihilate him as he would if it were him. He probably thought that God was able to read his mind when he lied and said he'd let the people go, so he thought he could deceive God. He thought God wasn't as powerful or as smart as he was. So in these circumstances, his heart was hardened but by the circumstances and his own will.
I agree that it is possible that he was lying in this instance, but again I come back to wondering why the biblical author would repeatedly make the distinction if he really meant the same thing each time.
So you think that having the freedom to do evil, including killing their own young and killing other weak and young in other nations (which is what they would have done) is more moral than allowing them to die and go directly to heaven? How is that moral and good?
I'm not making any statements about what is more moral. I am asking you two questions:
1. Is it good an moral in this instance to kill babies? Your answer seems to be yes, but I would appreciate an explicit answer.
2. Does it violate free will to kill those babies before they get the chance to exert their free will and choose evil?
You are setting up an impossible scenario, as Jesus would not command me to kill babies. So the hypothetical scenario is not in alignment with the age we live in. The two times we are discussing where God either brought the flood or commanded the killing are in direct purpose with Christ being born. If God had allowed the evil to continue they would have killed off all of the Jews which would have eliminated the path for Christ to be born.
I'm asking this question so I can understand how your morality works. I know you don't believe Jesus would ever ask such a thing but that is not the point. I would appreciate a direct answer. I'm not trying to trick you into saying Jesus is immoral or something. I just want to know what you would do. So again, knowing in your heart without a shadow of a doubt that Jesus (not an impostor) had really commanded you to kill babies, would you do it? Would that be a moral act?
Also I think you missed this question: Do you do not consider God and Jesus to be different versions of the same being? Do you not subscribe to the Trinity?
Ok. I have some questions about what you just presented.
1. Have you ever been aware of the time line of any appearance of some sort of life being moved back in time millions of years?
2. Do you know of any other Creation Narrative that has a detailed list of the sequence of life appearing on earth?
3. What evidence do you feel compels you to believe that the sequence in the Bible can't possibly be accurate?
1. I am aware that this occurs. However I am not aware of any such occurrences on the scale required for the order of creation in the bible to be salvaged. In any case I don't think the suggestion that the angiosperm fossil record might someday be moved back before the advent of life in the sea is really a convincing argument to defend the order of creation in Genesis. Saying that the fossil record
might produce new data that aligns with Genesis does not constitute support for the Gensis account actually being accurate to the best of our knowledge.
2. Not off the top of my head. But the non-existence of similar creation myths wouldn't serve as any support whatsoever for the accuracy of the biblical account. If you disagree please explain why.
3. I included some of it in the post you responded to. The order of creation in Genesis simply doesn't match the order in which organisms appear in the fossil record. You've made the argument that Genesis is just giving an overview of what was created and is not meant to give the order in which things were created. If that is the case, why is creation broken up into distinct days? Why do this if not to give a chronological order to the events described? If the genesis account doesn't give any information about the order of events, how can you justify the claim that the passage you've cited about the creation of aquatic life demonstrates that the bible says life arose in the sea? If there's no chronology in the account, it might as well be saying (which it does seem to, by the way), that fruit trees arose before life in the seas.