What errors do you think exist within the KJV?

[jalvarez4Jesus]

1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them.

which is it? plural or singular? because in the hebrew these words are exactly the same and in the same context.

Singular for Genesis 1:1 and plural for Genesis 2:1. In Genesis 1:1, God creates ONE HEAVEN and ONE EARTH (the heaven and the earth). Then in the six days of creation, God SPLITS that one heaven into THREE by making the firmament as a heaven in between the heaven above it and the heaven below it (Genesis 1:6-8). In Genesis 2:1 we have all three heavens "finished". There is no contradiction there in the KJV.

 

[vinsight4u]

/nvm

 

[jalvarez4Jesus]

I wasn't comparing two accounts in different books, but the translation of ONE VERSE, 2 Samuel 8:4.

KJV: "4 And David took from him a thousand chariots, and seven hundred horsemen, and twenty thousand footmen: and David houghed all the chariot horses, but reserved of them for an hundred chariots.

NKJV: 4 David took from him one thousand chariots, seven hundred horsemen, and twenty thousand foot soldiers. Also David hamstrung all the chariot horses, except that he spared enough of them for one hundred chariots.

NASB: 4 David captured from him 1,700 horsemen and 20,000 foot soldiers; and David hamstrung the chariot horses, but reserved enough of them for 100 chariots.

NIV: 4 David captured a thousand of his chariots, seven thousand charioteers and twenty thousand foot soldiers. He hamstrung all but a hundred of the chariot horses.

YLT: 4 and David captureth from him a thousand and seven hundred horsemen, and twenty thousand footmen, and David destroyeth utterly the whole of the charioteers, only he leaveth of them a hundred charioteers.

Tanakh: 1,700 horsemen

Wow, look at Young's Literal Translation. It is a completely different meaning than all the rest.

I don't exactly get you're alleged "problem" then? What is wrong with the TRANSLATION of the KJV here?

 

[1stcenturylady]

Singular for Genesis 1:1 and plural for Genesis 2:1. In Genesis 1:1, God creates ONE HEAVEN and ONE EARTH (the heaven and the earth). Then in the six days of creation, God SPLITS that one heaven into THREE by making the firmament as a heaven in between the heaven above it and the heaven below it (Genesis 1:6-8). In Genesis 2:1 we have all three heavens "finished". There is no contradiction there in the KJV.

This is a bit off topic, but what do you see is in the three heavens? We discussed this at Bible Study this week. Paul said in the Spirit he went to the third heaven. Then there are the rulers of the air, demons. Do you suppose that the second heaven is hell? Then there is the firmament and the stars; are they the same first heaven, or split?

 

[1stcenturylady]

I don't exactly get you're alleged "problem" then? What is wrong with the TRANSLATION of the KJV here?

I thanked you didn't I. Obviously I didn't see the difference between the two King James versions. KJV and NKJV. They don't match. But look at the NIV while we're at it. And the Young's last sentence doesn't match meaning with any of the others.

Mind boggling.

Wait a minute. I'm getting the Isa passage mixed up with the 2 Samuel passage. Don't try to figure it out, I'm having a senior moment. LOL

 

[jalvarez4Jesus]

This is a bit off topic, but what do you see is in the three heavens? We discussed this at Bible Study this week. Paul said in the Spirit he went to the third heaven. Then there are the rulers of the air, demons. Do you suppose that the second heaven is hell? Then there is the firmament and the stars; are they the same first heaven, or split?

The first heaven is the air where the birds fly (Genesis 1:20, 26). The Bible calls this heaven the "OPEN FIRMAMENT of heaven" (NOT the same thing or title as simply the "FIRMAMENT of the heaven"). The second heaven is where all the stars are. The earth is "IN" this firmament, as the universe surrounds our planet (sorry flat earthers!, see Genesis 1:16-17, Psalm 150:1, Psalm 19:1). The third heaven is beyond the second heaven, toward the "NORTH" (Isaiah 14:12-13) and is the paradise heaven of God. Imagine the universe with the earth inside of it, and way North of the earth is a division between the second heaven of the universe and the third heaven of paradise with WATER separating the two (Genesis 1:6-7, Psalm 148:4).

 

[1stcenturylady]

The first heaven is the air where the birds fly (Genesis 1:20, 26). The Bible calls this heaven the "OPEN FIRMAMENT of heaven" (NOT the same thing or title as simply the "FIRMAMENT of the heaven"). The second heaven is where all the stars are. The earth is "IN" this firmament, as the universe surrounds our planet (sorry flat earthers!, see Genesis 1:16-17, Psalm 150:1, Psalm 19:1). The third heaven is beyond the second heaven, toward the "NORTH" (Isaiah 14:12-13) and is the paradise heaven of God. Image the universe with the earth inside of it, and way North of the earth is a division between the second heaven of the universe and the third heaven of paradise with WATER separating the two (Genesis 1:6-7, Psalm 148:4).

So where do the demons rule as rulers of the air. The firmament?

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

Outside the number of horsemen David acquired (either 700 KJV, 1700 Tanakh/Septuigent/NASB, or 7000 NIV) when comparing the same verse in 2 Samuel 8:4, the most disturbing one I found was Isaiah 63:11

NKJV
Then he remembered the days of old,
Moses and his people, saying:
“Where is He who brought them up out of the sea
With the shepherd of His flock?
Where is He who put His Holy Spirit within them,

KJV has the same misleading wording.

NASB
Then His people remembered the days of old, of Moses.
Where is He who brought them up out of the sea with the shepherds of His flock? Where is He who put His Holy Spirit in the midst of them,

The cloud of smoke and the pillar of fire were not inside them, but in the midst of them.

It's exactly the same with Luke 17:21. "within you" is clearer as "in the midst of you" or "among you". Strictly speaking, "within them" or "within you" (plural), is, if "them" or "you" is taken to mean "them" or "you" as a collection, not erroneous, but as the natural way of understanding it is "within each one of you/them", rather than "within the area delineated by you/them", "in the midst of" or "among" is a better translation.

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

The biggest error in the KJV is the replacement of Yahweh (Hebrew: יהוה) with "the LORD" and "GOD" over 6000 times.

The places I'm aware of where they actually did transliterate His Name:

Genesis 22:14
Exodus 6:3
Exodus 17:15
Judges 6:24
Psalms 83:18
Isaiah 12:2
Isaiah 26:4

It's an intentionally blatant error.

except that the divinely inspired translation of YHWH into Greek is ho Kyrie, or The LORD. This is demonstrated in the quotations from the Old Testament that we find in the New.

 

[dqhall]

What errors do you think exist within the KJV?

Please see my other CF thread here on answers to various supposed contradictions in the KJV.
I have a few more answers to supposed contradictions for the KJV I would like to add later.


Anyways, may God bless you;
And may you please be well.

Scholars who translated the first century Biblical texts of the Dead Sea Scrolls found more modern textual translations varied from the first century scribal texts and from each other. The Jewish Old Testament and the Greek Old Testament had changed over the years.

The “Original” Bible and the Dead Sea Scrolls - Biblical Archaeology Society

There are definite differences between the Old Testament and the New Testament in the KJV. Does this mean the Old Testament was flawed? It is yet useful to study the laws of Moses for precepts against perversion and other important legal concepts. Paul did not have his converts receive the circumcision or the law in its entirety. Paul believed it is possible to please God without becoming circumcised. Jesus did healing work on the Sabbath that was illegal for him to do according to the chief priests during his time on earth. We no longer offer sacrifices of bulls in exchange for forgiveness of sins as Jesus came to set us free from this burden.

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

What do you guys think of "Jehovah"?

As much evidence for it as there is for Yahweh. My analysis of the Divine Name would suggest YahWah or YahaWah (Hayah followed by Hawah, each with the initial "Ha" deleted, as though it were a causative prefix, so that YHWH is the one that exists without having been caused to exist). But who knows?

 

[jalvarez4Jesus]

So where do the demons rule as rulers of the air. The firmament?

Exactly what scripture are you referring to?

 

[Neal of Zebulun]

except that the divinely inspired translation of YHWH into Greek is ho Kyrie, or The LORD. This is demonstrated in the quotations from the Old Testament that we find in the New.

Good thing we have the Hebrew source with the Name יהוה in it to show that the Greek is wrong.

 

[jalvarez4Jesus]

Act 12:4 has always bugged me in the KJV.

And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Clearly they were not yet celebrating Easter in the first Century and even if they were (which they were not) neither Herod nor the Jewish people would have cared enough to wait for it to be over.

Actually, ancient history reveals that Herod would have been celebrating the pagan holiday of Ishtar (which is pronounced as Easter today). So Herod was waiting after the pagan celebration of Easter to then kill Peter.

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

Act 12:4 has always bugged me in the KJV.

And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Clearly they were not yet celebrating Easter in the first Century and even if they were (which they were not) neither Herod nor the Jewish people would have cared enough to wait for it to be over.

Tyndale used "Easter" in his New Testament translation because he had not yet invented the word "Passover". Had he lived to revise his New Testament, he would doubtless have substituted "Passover". That is what the KJV translators wanted to do, but King James insisted that the word "Easter" had to be used at least once. So they put it where it would cause the least harm. Also, probably, at that time, Easter and Passover coincided, so while it was a mistranslation of pascha, the historical accuracy is probably not compromised.

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

Actually, ancient history reveals that Herod would have been celebrating the pagan holiday of Ishtar (which is pronounced as Easter today). So Herod was waiting after the pagan celebration of Easter to then kill Peter.

Good try, but the Greek says "pascha", not "estar".

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

Good thing we have the Hebrew source with the Name יהוה in it to show that the Greek is wrong.

You mean the divinely inspired Greek is wrong?

 

[jalvarez4Jesus]

Good try, but the Greek says "pascha", not "estar".

Why don't you check out the modern Greek to English translation or pascha? It means Easter.

 

[JohnOfWoodGreen]

Why don't you check out the modern Greek to English translation or pascha? It means Easter.

pascha is a transliteration of the Hebrew Pesach. It's nothing to do with the pagan feast of Ishtar.

 

[Neal of Zebulun]

You mean the divinely inspired Greek is wrong?

Wait. You mean the divinely inspired Hebrew is wrong?