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What do you think about the New Testament?

Gxg (G²)

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Ham, the one who 'uncovered Noah's nakedness' was the forefather of Sodom and Gomorrah. Obviously the nephilim existed in Numbers. I have also thought that the reason Israel was ordered to destroy some of the peoples they came across, including children, was because they were nephilim.
As noted earlier, I have also thought the same thing at some points...though that seems to be in line with the "Serpent Seed" concept that many have had (which I disagree with since it was not just a matter a genetics that God had in mind when it came to offspring of the enemy). Additionally, it'd seem that there may be other views to consider when it comes to the genocides that the Lord supported--and for more, one can go here to #38 and #39
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Obviously this did not include the eight that were on the ark. Only Noah was said to be genetically pure. Is it so hard to believe the nephilim survived through the flood instead of coming back to earth? If they came back to earth, their chains were not tight enough.
.
I think that's where there's a bit of a disconnect. For the scriptures NEVER say that it was the Nephilim that were locked up in chains..as it states it was the angels who were imprisoned after the event. The Nephilim were included in the decree of the Lord when he said that all flesh---outside of those whom He sparred/felt were appropriate--would be killed.


Moreover, to have Nephilim---geneticially impure giants created from the fall (As not all genetic traits in man were due to angels intervening) --would not be anymore odd to see again than it'd be to see mankind returning to wickedness right in Genesis 11 with the Tower of Babel.

Surely, with all of the defects that have occurred in the human race today/diseases, even when it turns out that certain developments/mutations give certain groups an edge (as it is with giants), it'd not be odd to consider that the Nephilim were within that class...and they could've easily come back after the FLOOD due to genetics just as other throwbacks could have and just as men still had the strain of sin within them. As the SPIRITS never were destroyed by the flood, its more than possible that they were able to influence men via whisper campaining by telling men in the centuries to come of things that occurred in the older world......and this time, though demons were forbidden to take human form/mate, they could still decieve/give occultic secrets to tempt man.


I'm not saying this to be racist although I do know the neo-nazis / british Israelism use it to justify their "serpent seed" myths. I was pointing out that the nephilim / sexual deviancy could have survived the flood through Ham (which would state Noah's wife was genetically impure so this may not be correct) I do not believe the races came to play until years later.
That I understand...though I don't see evidence to assume that the Nephilim were ones made from angelic sexual deviancy. To say that one's a child of the devil due to having his mindset is more than reasonable, but to say its all due to GENETICS is a stretch in my view.
Likely the genetic modifications / different races came about because of the new radiation from the sun (radiation from the sun which did not exist pre flood)
Possibly, though as giants existed before the flood, its possible that other reasons existed for the modifications in strains of the Human race beyond radiation.
What many people do not realize is that Adam was alive when Lamech (Noah's father) was alive and that Noah and Abraham were contemporaries
Where was it the case that Noah and Abraham were contemporaries? A

and that Shem outlived Abraham. So there were observations from before the flood that could have been directly given to Abraham
Can you give verification of this from the scripture?
 
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INTJ-F

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Likely the genetic modifications / different races came about because of the new radiation from the sun (radiation from the sun which did not exist pre flood)

Possibly, though as giants existed before the flood, its possible that other reasons existed for the modifications in strains of the Human race beyond radiation.
Genetic races - not nephilim. You are confusing apples with oranges.

What many people do not realize is that Adam was alive when Lamech (Noah's father) was alive and that Noah and Abraham were contemporaries Where was it the case that Noah and Abraham were contemporaries? A
and that Shem outlived Abraham. So there were observations from before the flood that could have been directly given to Abraham
Can you give verification of this from the scripture?
I took my bible and did a time line with the ages given in the bible and the age of each when their son was born. I have the time line is .xls (Excel) format. It is from Adam through Isaac. I will share it with you if you want it (and can open .xls files)
 
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ContraMundum

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Nephilim exist and they exist today. They are human / angel crosses. I met one and know they are causing problems for believers.

Get an autograph?

I'd like to know what to look for - how does one tell if one has met a Nephilim?
 
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As far as the question in the OP, I do believe that the NT is inspired, whether in Aramaic or Greek. I believe the trouble comes in when we've translated, and certain traditions within Christianity concerning what the text means vs what the text actually says.

I do not have a favorite book.
 
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visionary

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Easy G (G²);57493429 said:
I think that's where there's a bit of a disconnect. For the scriptures NEVER say that it was the Nephilim that were locked up in chains..as it states it was the angels who were imprisoned after the event. The Nephilim were included in the decree of the Lord when he said that all flesh---outside of those whom He sparred/felt were appropriate--would be killed.


Moreover, to have Nephilim---geneticially impure giants created from the fall (As not all genetic traits in man were due to angels intervening) --would not be anymore odd to see again than it'd be to see mankind returning to wickedness right in Genesis 11 with the Tower of Babel.

Surely, with all of the defects that have occurred in the human race today/diseases, even when it turns out that certain developments/mutations give certain groups an edge (as it is with giants), it'd not be odd to consider that the Nephilim were within that class...and they could've easily come back after the FLOOD due to genetics just as other throwbacks could have and just as men still had the strain of sin within them. As the SPIRITS never were destroyed by the flood, its more than possible that they were able to influence men via whisper campaining by telling men in the centuries to come of things that occurred in the older world......and this time, though demons were forbidden to take human form/mate, they could still decieve/give occultic secrets to tempt man.


That I understand...though I don't see evidence to assume that the Nephilim were ones made from angelic sexual deviancy. To say that one's a child of the devil due to having his mindset is more than reasonable, but to say its all due to GENETICS is a stretch in my view.
Possibly, though as giants existed before the flood, its possible that other reasons existed for the modifications in strains of the Human race beyond radiation.
Where was it the case that Noah and Abraham were contemporaries? A

Can you give verification of this from the scripture?
Have you notices in all satanic cult activities, it is very perverted sexual interactions in nature, along with sometimes being very brutal and bloody.
 
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visionary

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As far as the question in the OP, I do believe that the NT is inspired, whether in Aramaic or Greek. I believe the trouble comes in when we've translated, and certain traditions within Christianity concerning what the text means vs what the text actually says.

I do not have a favorite book.
Not only that, but any interpretation that leans more Judaic in nature is immediately suspect.
 
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BloodyRachel

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You've obviously never studied Greek.

Reality check here: There is no solid, actual and proven evidence that Matthew was ever written in Hebrew. There's a lot of speculation but no ancient text, so it's all a bit of a fancy trip of the imagination. The Greek really doesn't read like a translation, so let's stop the speculation and study what God has preserved for us.

Furthermore, there is no logic behind the statement that Greek is "ungodly", since God has used it and blessed it as a language, and also that the language is very precise and a great communicator. Most Jews at the time of the NT spoke Greek as well as other languages, it is estimated. It was and is the perfect language to reach both Jew and Gentile alike.

You've obviously never studied Hebrew.

Reality check: Hebrew is the holy language of God. It was given by God to Moses on Mount Sinai. I didn't say that Matthew was written in Hebrew. I said I read about it. I know there are a lot of people who deny it. There are a lot of people who deny their Jewish roots. But why do they feel that way? There are so many mysteries hidden in God's holy language.

God doesn't bless Greek. That would be like blessing pagan rituals. Has God ever blessed baptism or communion? No. Communion comes from Mithra, a demon. Passover comes from God.
 
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visionary

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As far as the question in the OP, I do believe that the NT is inspired, whether in Aramaic or Greek. I believe the trouble comes in when we've translated, and certain traditions within Christianity concerning what the text means vs what the text actually says.

I do not have a favorite book.
Love the pic:D
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Reality check: Hebrew is the holy language of God. It was given by God to Moses on Mount Sinai. I didn't say that Matthew was written in Hebrew. I said I read about it. I know there are a lot of people who deny it. There are a lot of people who deny their Jewish roots. But why do they feel that way?
I think where Contra may've had issue was in others saying that Hebrew is somehow the language of God. For the scriptures never say such---and the Apostles, Jesus and other believers all utilized the Greek translations of the scriptures as well as the Hebrew. More was discussed on that in #51 , #53 and #54.

As it concerns the Hebrew, some wish to make it out as if all other languages are inferior to Hebrew....as that's often what many in Hebraic/Messianic circles have done when making it out as if God spoke only spoke Hebrew since the people he worked with were Hebrew.

If Genesis 11:1-131 is true with the Tower of Babel, that doesn't seem to be the case...
Genesis 11

The Tower of Babel

1 Now the whole world had one language and a common speech. 2 As people moved eastward,[a] they found a plain in Shinarand settled there.

3 They said to each other, “Come, let’s make bricks and bake them thoroughly.” They used brick instead of stone, and tar for mortar. 4 Then they said, “Come, let us build ourselves a city, with a tower that reaches to the heavens, so that we may make a name for ourselves; otherwise we will be scattered over the face of the whole earth.”

5 But the LORD came down to see the city and the tower the people were building. 6 The LORD said, “If as one people speaking the same language they have begun to do this, then nothing they plan to do will be impossible for them. 7 Come, let us go down and confuse their language so they will not understand each other.”

8 So the LORD scattered them from there over all the earth, and they stopped building the city. 9 That is why it was called Babel[c]—because there the LORD confused the language of the whole world. From there the LORD scattered them over the face of the whole earth.

With Babel, God saw that the Babel enterprise was all about human independence and self-sufficiency apart from God.....for the builders believed that they had no need of God. Their technology and social unity gave them confidence in their own ability, and thery had high aspirations in constructing a tower in the heavens. Counter to God's plan that people should fill the earth (e.g Genesis 1:22, Genesis 1:28, Genesis 9:1-7), the city building project was designed to prevent the population from being dispersed over the face of the whole earth.


God intervened by confusing the languages...and by showing God's continued interest in his creatures, God set the setting for the call of Abram out of this very region that Babel was set up in, that he could be a vehicle of blessing to the whole world. Ironically, in the age of the Spirit given to all men because of Christ, its interesting that in Acts 2:1-12, the church came together in the upper room and experienced what happened before the Tower of Babel incident. For there were people who literally spoke in other languages--a muraculous attention-getter for the international crowd gathered in town for the feastt....and all nationalities represented recognized their own languages being spoken, showing the power and presence of the Holy Spirit. and showing how Christianity is not limited to any race or group of people.

The Spirit gave the people in Acts 2 utterance, indicating that the Holy Spirit was directing the syllables they spoke. Speaking in tongues in this way also seems to be the phenomenon experienced by those at Cornelius's house (Acts 10:45-46) and the disciples of John at Ephesus (John 19:6). ....all of it being based in the Holy Spirit (I Corinthians 12:10, I Corinthians 12:29-30, I Corinthians 14:2) and showing how what God always intended is for universal language/comprehension of others in their own tongues to occur.


Again, all of that goes back to the reality of what happened with the Tower of Babel and why it was significant that God had to put on hold universal understanding of languages until He could be glorified---and He used the language of Hebrew and Abram in Genesis 12 to begin that plan. But one must bear in mind that just because the Lord chose to utilize one from the descendants of Shem/the language of Hebrew doesn't mean it in/of itself was the ONLY language that God ever spoke. God could have chosen any culture for the job He sovereignly gave to Abram. ....and if one wishes to be technical, it was not always the case that even the Jews themselves spoke Hebrew all the time. One can go to 2 Kings 18:25-27 and Isaiah 36:10-12 for a clear example when the Israelities asked another to speak to them in Aramaic since they didn't understand Hebrew.

As one Jewish believer said,the Lord speaking to the Jews in Hebrew doesn't mean Hebrew is the most sacred language. For there were others prior to the concept of Jews developing that the Lord spoke to. ...and they would've been considered to be "pagans"...



In the land of Cannan, what of those prior to Abraham that the Lord may've spoken to? As it stands, there are many scholars who've argued that Hebrew did not develop until about 1000 BCE. ..and that before that, it was simply Canaanite, which evolved from Phoenician.

The Canaanite Language, also know as Phoenician is a branch of the West Semitic languages that include Hebrew, Aramaic, Syriac, Arabic and others. Where Hebrew and Aramaic are closely related to the Canaanite language in vocabulary and grammar, Arabic is a little further off from grammatical proximity, but still retains much common vocabulary.




Canaanite was spoken in Lebanon for thousands of years, and most of its lexicon is retained within the Lebanese colloquial dialect. With the language of Hebrew, one must consider the Arabic language and how the Hebrew and the Arabic really have the same root. For the word is “EL” in Hebrew and it’s “AL” in Aramaic. They came from the same word.

The fact that God showed himself/spoke to Hebrew to the Jews doesn't have to mean that it was God's "special/secret" language...for many have said how Hebrew would only have had significance to the Jews whom God spoke to when it came to their own tongue.

When God spoke in other languages to other ethnic groups, to them their language would have been how God revealed Himself. Its one of the reasons as to why many Hebrew Christians do not think others have an inferior view of God when saying the Lord's name in Arabic---as they feel that God's greatness can be expressed even when saying "Allah". For more info, one of the best sources online to investigate would be an article under the name of Hebrew – The Original Language? " by Dr. Orville Boyd Jenkins


For anyone either having friends on the Mission Field in Middle Eastern cultures and for that matter or doing extensive work regarding Muslims in nations around the world, it's always a trip when it seems that people equate the use of the term "Allah" with believing ALL ASPECTS as those do who are Muslim. People seem to display a good bit of ignorance on the issue when that happens, IMHO, as it often leading to uncessary offense among Arabic believers since the reality is that ALLAH is Arabic term used to indicate who God is.......and both CHRISTIAN and MUSLIMS use the term frequently if Arabic.

As it stands, Arabic believers are more ancient than Jewish...and when a believer calls God the Father "Allah", people in other nations understand that just because the term is used does not mean it has the same connotations in all settings and asking questions for clarifications is wise.

It's the same thing when people choose to say "Isa" in regards to "Jesu", as that's the Arabic way of saying who the Lord is (as well as how many Muslims say of the Lord). They're saying such instead of "Yeshua" as those in Jewish culture choose to do does not logically mean that they are not exactly the same. And evangelists need to always be sensitive to this when it comes to cultural contexualization of the Gospel and what the Message is all about.

For another example, if in a Hispanic culture and presenting the Gospel, it was not necessary to tell them they HAVE to pronounce the name of Jesus as "Yeshua" in order to be acceptable to God. For that kind of mindset is similar to what many "Hebrew-Roots" cults have often done to others...essentially being Judaizers and trying to make all Gentiles become "Jewish" in everything from their terminology. When a Hispanic prays "El Señor es mi pastor Nada me faltara" (which means "The Lord is my Shepherd. I shall not want", in line with Psalm 23), its not as if the Lord refuses to say his name simply because the hispanic didn't say it as a Jewish person would.

As Paul made clear in I Corinthians 9, it'd be important to speak the language of Gentiles when around Gentiles for the sake of the Gospel....and when around Jews, so as to not be offensive and avoid appearing as if one doesn't care about Hebraic foundations, it'd be just as appropiate for one to use the name "Yeshua" since that's their native tongue.


I truly believe God comes to us where we are...and has always revealed Himself to us in differing cultures since the Tower of Babel. Some of this was discussed previously in another thread on how the Judaic has often shpwn up in differing cultures all around---as seen here. If God wished to spread the Gospel/revelation of Himself to the Chinese in their language---as he has already been doing so---he'd be more than free to do so. It could have been the case where the Lord found an "Abram" in the land of South East Asia and we all would've seen the Lord develop Biblical history through that end of the world----with us saying that Vietanemeese or Thai is the Language of the Lord.

It all tends to make sense if seeing things from the perspective of a play or a drama----as just because someone gets elected to having a staring role in the play doesn't mean that the director's choosing to speak that person's language equates to that language being sacred. It simply means that the director chose to utilize that language as a means of showing what he wanted at the moment.

As the Lord made clear that it had NOTHING to do with Israel's righteousness (i.e. language, dress, culture, etc) that the Lord chose them:
Deuteronomy 9:4-6/Deuteronomy 9


4 After the LORD your God has driven them out before you, do not say to yourself, “The LORD has brought me here to take possession of this land because of my righteousness.” No, it is on account of the wickedness of these nations that the LORD is going to drive them out before you. 5 It is not because of your righteousness or your integrity that you are going in to take possession of their land; but on account of the wickedness of these nations, the LORD your God will drive them out before you, to accomplish what he swore to your fathers, to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

6 Understand, then
, that it is not because of your righteousness that the LORD your God is giving you this good land to possess, for you are a stiff-necked people.
Deuteronomy 7:5


7 The LORD did not set his affection on you and choose you because you were more numerous than other peoples, for you were the fewest of all peoples. 8 But it was because the LORD loved you and kept the oath he swore to your ancestors that he brought you out with a mighty hand and redeemed you from the land of slavery, from the power of Pharaoh king of Egypt. 9

Again, it was never about the righteousness of Israel or the Hebrews that the Lord chose them and sought to utilize their languages.


And as said before, God comes to us where we are...and if the Lord wanted to reveal Himself to others in a differing language, He'd be free to do so. If it was Chineese, there'd be no reason to assume it was His special language anymore than Hebrew is. Of course, alongside that comes the issue of how God did reveal Himself previously to the Chineese or other places, as He did, even as He was revealing Himself to the Hebrews. In example, if aware of something known as “Ancient Faith Radio”, they did a series on the issue of how in some cultures, it seems that they were already being prepared for the presentation of the Gospel…with it being established that GOD was at work in all cultures far before any others with revelation of what the Hebrews had came around. The radio brodcast from "Ancient Faith Radio" was on a book entitled “Christ the Eternal Tao”…and for more info, one can go online/look up "Christ the Eternal Tao - Ancient Faith Radio" . I thought it was interesting to see from an Eastern Christian perspective how the Tao Te Ching is presented as an imperfect, incomplete foreshadowing of what would later be revealed by Christ.


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Lulav

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You've obviously never studied Hebrew.

Reality check: Hebrew is the holy language of God. It was given by God to Moses on Mount Sinai. I didn't say that Matthew was written in Hebrew. I said I read about it. I know there are a lot of people who deny it. There are a lot of people who deny their Jewish roots. But why do they feel that way? There are so many mysteries hidden in God's holy language.

God doesn't bless Greek. That would be like blessing pagan rituals. Has God ever blessed baptism or communion? No. Communion comes from Mithra, a demon. Passover comes from God.
I would have to tell you that you are obviously wrong. CM knows Hebrew from childhood as well as Uni studies to boot, along with Greek. He doesn't need a 'reality check'. :)

And as far as it being given to Moshe on Mt Sinai, where did you get that idea?

As far as denying their Jewish roots, I can tell you that CM doesn't deny he is Jewish so you are barking up the wrong tree there.

Languages are not holy or pagan, different languages were given to the different divisions of nations, by G-d. Isn't that special in of itself? Hebrew happens to be the one he gave us to pass on His holy word. It doesn't mean the others are 'pagan'.

Oh, I've been wanting to ask, why as a Male, do you have a name like Bloody Rachel?:confused:
 
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GuardianShua

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As far as the question in the OP, I do believe that the NT is inspired, whether in Aramaic or Greek. I believe the trouble comes in when we've translated, and certain traditions within Christianity concerning what the text means vs what the text actually says.

I do not have a favorite book.

The prophetic words that Yahshua spoke are inspired, along with fulfilled prophecy. And then there is the book of Revelation, its an inspired writing.
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Genetic races - not nephilim. You are confusing apples with oranges.
I think, however, that's where there's a struggle since one is assuming apples and oranges where there're only mangos/the same fruit

There has always been diversity in Humanity, specifically in regards to differing ethnicities and the abilities of those ethnicities. There's not really such a thing as differing races since there's only the HUMAN race....and the only way things would work is if coming at things from an evolutionary perspective---which I can respect when it comes to the subject of differing variations of primates and man being one of them

There's actually a theory in existence that believes the Nephilim were not angelic/human mixes---but instead were a species on a differing evolutionary route than the group that the Lord placed his Spirit on...with man being the one that the Lord chose to work with and the Nephlim being the leftovers who evolved over time. Many ponder over the possibility of the Nephilim being a species of proto-human..basically an unknown or primitive species of human.






For more, one can go here to the following:



Many consider it controversial to even consider the concept that men and Nephilim (as well as apes )come from the same background and that perhaps the concept of differing races is connected to them. But I don't see what's illogical with it.




Secifically, Under the Scientific classification of Anthropoids:
Sub-Order: Anthropoidea,
Infra-Order: Catarrhine,
Super-family: Homonoidea,
Subfamily: Homininae,
Tribe: Hominini,
Species: Human.


The other "tribe" under Homininae is: Panini, Species: Chimpanzees. Humans are different for other primates in that we don't have an insulating layer of hair - allowing us to control body temperature through sweating. AND Our females go through a menopause sometime quite early in life, while other primates don't.

And this wouldn't be an issue for "Creationists" in any way..

Dr. Porsche built the original "Bebe" Renault, and the Economy models of the early Mercedes rear engine vehicles - AND the Volkswagens (in 1939). When one looks at the "guts" of the three (and of others he did) one can see a distinctive commonality of design, and similar features among all three - making it clear that the same "thought process" produced all three vehicles. BUT Nobody would try to prove that a Volkswagen was a "Bebe Renault" - but could easily demonstrate that the same "creator" was involved in both of 'em.

Again, some are of the mindset that the Nephilim are not even angelic--but rather, that they are throwbacks from the other branch of the evolutionary tree that Adam/Eve hailed from......and whereas Adam/Eve went in one direction, the Nephilim went in another due to where they developed from.


Some Christians think belief in evolution undermines the uniqueness of humankind and the reality of evil and the fall....but I disagree. For the Genesis account portrays Adam and Eve as Neolithic farmers. It is perfectly feasible that God bestowed His image on representative Homo sapiens already living in the Near East to generate what John Stott has called Homo divinus, those who first enjoyed personal fellowship with God but who then fell most terribly from their close walk with God (Genesis 3.8). All those who disobey God and trust in their own wisdom in place of God’s law reiterate the historical fall in their own being (Ezekiel 28.11-19).


I don't see anything wrong with advocating that God may've made two species that have similarities and may've indeed come from the same stock while choosing to impart one aspect of Himself into one of the groups to make them far superior/advanced than all others in creation. I recently came across an article from BIO Logos that I thought was intriguing when it came to discussing what's seen in Genesis and renconcilling that with Anthroplogy. For more:





What they offered seemed insightful and, IMHO, it does bring up an entirely different realm of conversation when considering Genesis and how God described the role of Man (as well as the Devil) and the story of creation all the way up to Genesis 6/the Flood.

Although I think the story of Adam/Eve is literal, I think the interpretation of it often gets missed. Where scripture says "God made man from the Dust of the Ground", I've always been curious as to why many say its somehow impossible for the Lord to have made other species similar to man (i.e. apes, primates, etc) and then with man, breath his spirit into man....with the Gift of God's Spirit imparted being what set man apart.


The text doesn't say that only having 4 fingers/thumbs is what makes man in the "Image of God"...as other creatures share similar genetic make-up on some parts & have the same body parts. Yet that doesn't mean that we're the same fully. If apes /other species and humans were 100% the same in all things, it'd definately place an entirely different spin on the film "Planet of the Apes." ;)


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Seeing the Film puts an enitrely DIFFERENT spin on what it means to be in a Zoo---and makes one wonder what would happen if indeed was the case that something was naturally able to develop that'd be against man. For animals have learned to use tools, as well as to communicate on high levels of intelligence/network...even using tools to do things. Though never on the level as man, there's no saying that it could not happen where intelligence/development grew enough where a threat to man's survival occurred. Of course, if that happened like in "Planet of the Apes, they I'd say Apes would be seen as another creation of the "Beasts of the Field" (Genesis 1:24-25)...and having to fight against other species evolving would be an extension of the mandate from God to "Have Dominion" (Genesis 1:26-31). ..with both connected and what's seen in anthropology with "common links"/similar actions kept in place...

Other creatures being made outside of the Image of God as man was wouldn't mean that they don't have value or worth in the eyes of the Lord, as discussed more in-depth in #91 AND #92. For some articles discussing how men/apes are similar and yet distinct:



Concerning what's often discussed in evolutionary theory when it comes to survival of the fittest, it could also be the case that the scriptures simply describe what happened to man when the Lord formed him while perhaps not giving the rest of the details..as it concerns the possibility that man was made in His image due to being the one that qualified for "advancement"/further development to look like the Lord in his having a Spirit/being able to have Oneness with Him.

Essentially, evolution would play out with one group of hominids being stronger than others and that one was transformed into man......and while the final product would continue on evolving as time progressed, they'd also be ahead of other creations in dominance. With that in mind, one could easily picture how it could it also be possible that man evolving into the Image of God would not necessarily cancel out the ability of other creatures to evolve as well.


As said best by another ministry known as "God and Science" in their article, "Must Human Evolution Contradict Genesis?" ( ):
..Cyril Vollert suggests in his Symposium on Evolution (1959) that evolution theory might integrate with Scripture if God directly infused the human spiritual soul into a fully adult subhuman primate. Such transformation would instantly change the entire material organization of that primate into true man. Vollert also proposes that this radical change might have taken place at the embryonic level. In that case, subhuman primates would not be the real parents of Adam, since his direct creation as a human being, though using evolved embryonic material principles, would be the work of God, who alone can create the spiritual human soul as well as raise matter to the level of this qualitatively higher new species. Even subhuman primates might readily rear such “offspring” as their own. This new species could then separate from the prior subhuman stock in the manner described above.

Legitimate, IMHO. I think being made in the "Image of GOD" isn't about having nothing in common with the animals as much as it is about being a NEW Kind of Animal, as man is both SPIRIT AND Body. That's radically different than anything else God has made in creation. God was very creative when he made man-kind--but whether he made man through evolutionary means or made man out of nothing, what matters is that man is special. He is truly of God's Kind.....




I have the time line is .xls (Excel) format. It is from Adam through Isaac. I will share it with you if you want it (and can open .xls files)
Please do:)
 
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ContraMundum

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You've obviously never studied Hebrew.

I have.

Reality check: Hebrew is the holy language of God. It was given by God to Moses on Mount Sinai.

Chapter and verse?

There are a lot of people who deny their Jewish roots.

Not me.

God doesn't bless Greek.

I think so. Billions of people throughout history have come to faith by reading scriptures based on Greek texts.
Has God ever blessed baptism or communion?

He always blesses His commandments. Baptism and Holy Communion are commanded by God.

Have you rejected baptism?

Communion comes from Mithra, a demon.

It comes from Jesus, Messiah and Lord.

Passover comes from God.

Yes.
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Have you notices in all satanic cult activities, it is very perverted sexual interactions in nature, along with sometimes being very brutal and bloody.
Yes, indeed, I've noticed that. Its actually the same in pornagraphic industries, as it concerns the sexual interactions and mixing it with the demonic or satanic...especially as it concerns the philosophy many have about doing as you wish.

With the Satanic cults, its wild to witness how often there's a brutalization of the body and yet even in the Pornagraphic Industry, the same occurs when the dehumanization of women goes down and they're seen as objects to be abused. Most rapists have all acknowledged that the Satanic and demonic things they did all began with pornagraphy---for it was a gateway drug to evil.
 
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Gxg (G²)

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any interpretation that leans more Judaic in nature is immediately suspect.
Curious as to what you mean by that, as it seems that what has often been discussed here on the forums is that interpretations need to lean more so toward the Judaic to be legit--and as it concerns one of the other sub-conversations in this thread, its being argued that anything not of a Hebraic language/cultural dyanamic is not legitimate for reliance upon....
 
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visionary

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Easy G (G²);57495756 said:
Curious as to what you mean by that, as it seems that what has often been discussed here on the forums is that interpretations need to lean more so toward the Judaic to be legit--and as it concerns one of the other sub-conversations in this thread, its being argued that anything not of a Hebraic language/cultural dyanamic is not legitimate for reliance upon....
Try showing that in GT... then you will see what I mean
 
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Gxg (G²)

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Try showing that in GT... then you will see what I mean
Are there threads in the GT area where I can look for where it has already occurred/study?
 
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