No, no. As t3eh Bible makes plain, the ancient Israelites were subject to falling into polytheism.
Quite possible.
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No, no. As t3eh Bible makes plain, the ancient Israelites were subject to falling into polytheism.
Yes, from what I know about the Apocrypha , they are ignorant assumptions. Also, arguing that such-and-such is the cases , because you think you read something about it in some source you can't remember is a not a solid way to make a point. It's like arguing "they say." "Who are the they?" I ask.
Of course not. His official spokesmen, the prophets, always rejected that. However many in Israel still gave some credence to multiple Gods. Portions of the OT are worded consistently with that.So let me clear this up somewhat as to your beliefs on this particular topic. You'all are saying that other Gods existed according to what the one true God expresses in the OT writings? I beg to differ that is not His meaning at all. And to say that the language did not extend to the NT seems bizzarre too since that is the one place where emphasis is placed on gods of this word, where gods are not meant at all but are actually fallen angels.
My point is that the word 'Trinity' is found in an apocryphal book which is not accepted for the canon, but the term has been accepted in the belief of most of the Christendom! Isn't strange?
Well thanks for clarifying that. His prophets, God's spokesmen were inspired to speak God's words as He developed revelations about Himself that is true. Hebrews 1:1-2Of course not. His official spokesmen, the prophets, always rejected that. However many in Israel still gave some credence to multiple Gods. Portions of the OT are worded consistently with that.
Sorry, but I don't accept that God dictated the Bible. The authors of the Bible show development in their ideas of God.
I say philosophical concession because John uses the term "in the beginning" but there was no beginning of God, howerver there would be a beginning of the creator Son.
Claiming that the Bible is the Word of God isn't found in the Bible, either, but people do it. The Word of God is God, not the Bible.
According to John1 in the Bible.Not according to the Bible - just Urantia.
Micah 5
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah,
Though you are little among the thousands of Judah,
Yet out of you shall come forth to Me
The One to be Ruler in Israel,
Whose goings forth are from of old,
From everlasting.”
Ps 90:1-2
LORD, You have been our dwelling place in all generations.
Before the mountains were brought forth,
Or ever You had formed the earth and the world,
Even from everlasting to everlasting, You are God.
I don't think he was saying that God has a beginning. Rather he notes (correctly, I guess) that in John 1:2 it says that the Word was with God in the beginning. Hence he suggested that this was speaking of a beginning to the Word.Not according to the Bible - just Urantia.
...
From everlasting.”
Are you implying that the plan of the gospel was from eternity?According to John1 in the Bible.
'In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."
You have conjured up this idea in place of what is actually stated in John 1. "The Word was God", means that the Word was God. "The Word became flesh" means that God took human form as Jesus of Nazareth.John 1 makes a philosophical concession for purposes of illustration of the ancestral relatedness of Jesus and his Paradise parents.
What I'm saying is consistent with God the Father in heaven and Jesus on earth being two different divine persons. Jesus clearly referred to his father in heaven, he also referred to being divine himself. In the theoretical beginning God the Father was with the Son who incarnate on our worldYou have conjured up this idea in place of what is actually stated in John 1. "The Word was God", means that the Word was God. "The Word became flesh" means that God took human form as Jesus of Nazareth.
According to John1 in the Bible.
'In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."
Well, the plan of God is from God. We would have to say that the gospel as Jesus presented it was conditioned by events that took place in time and space, events which could be said to have delayed and or been in opposition to Gods will, but eventually the plan will come to fruition.Are you implying that the plan of the gospel was from eternity?
What I'm saying is consistent with God the Father in heaven and Jesus on earth being two different divine persons. Jesus clearly referred to his father in heaven, he also referred to being divine himself. In the theoretical beginning God the Father was with the Son
Neither the Father nor the Son - (the Word nor God) - has a beginning themselves. One could argue that "In the beginning" is a reference to Genesis 1:1 where matter/this-universe has a beginning.
Speaking of this building - "in the beginning was the Architect" does not mean the Architect is born the same day the building project begins.
We agree, this discussion comes from my initial point that John was making a philosophical concession because, God has no beginning, he is from eternity. Johns purpose seems to be to show a sequential relationship between the Father and Son from eternity. We don't know if any of the original apostles understood or were taught a Trinity.That much is true - and neither were themselves "begun" in "the beginning" -- because that phrase is a reference to the beginning of life in the universe, matter in the universe. "All things that have been made" - but not to the 'maker beginning' at that same time.
You have conjured up this idea in place of what is actually stated in John 1. "The Word was God", means that the Word was God. "The Word became flesh" means that God took human form as Jesus of Nazareth.
According to John1 in the Bible.
'In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."
What I'm saying is consistent with God the Father in heaven and Jesus on earth being two different divine persons. Jesus clearly referred to his father in heaven, he also referred to being divine himself. In the theoretical beginning God the Father was with the Son
We agree, this discussion comes from my initial point that John was making a philosophical concession because, God has no beginning, he is from eternity. Johns purpose seems to be to show a sequential relationship between the Father and Son from eternity.
We don't know if any of the original apostles understood or were taught a Trinity.