- Jun 10, 2010
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A church is the body of the elect in a certain location. Corinthians was written from a believer to believers. Nonbelievers who happen to read it are invited to believe, but do not qualify for being the audience until they do.
Evidently Paul disagrees.
Why? There is an "I" - Paul - and a "you" - the Corinthians - in verse 3 itself. "I" and "you" make "we," and thus if "we" appears in the same verse, there's no contextual reason to make the pronoun inclusive of unnamed and unmentioned unregenerate. The nearest reference to an unbeliever is probably in verse 25, when Paul makes reference to Christ's enemies. Paul has taken many turns in his train of thought by this point, so this is too distant to inform us about the nature of the antecedents of a pronoun paragraphs earlier.
Except that Paul explicitly says, '...I passed on to you...' Paul, at the time he preached to them, passed on the gospel. He told them that Christ died for our sins. That would include those to whom he was addressing.
"I will go to the restaurant from work, you will come there from home, and there we will have dinner. Oh, let me here explicitly disclaim that we're not going to have dinner with additional people that I haven't mentioned." This feels like a natural way to speak to you?
No.
If such passages exist, they're not talking about the atonement, otherwise they affirm universalism, which they don't.
Assertion.
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