Epiphoskei
Senior Veteran
A church is the body of the elect in a certain location. Corinthians was written from a believer to believers. Nonbelievers who happen to read it are invited to believe, but do not qualify for being the audience until they do.Even so, Paul acknowledges the fact that we should not assume that all those in a church are true believers.
Why? There is an "I" - Paul - and a "you" - the Corinthians - in verse 3 itself. "I" and "you" make "we," and thus if "we" appears in the same verse, there's no contextual reason to make the pronoun inclusive of unnamed and unmentioned unregenerate. The nearest reference to an unbeliever is probably in verse 25, when Paul makes reference to Christ's enemies. Paul has taken many turns in his train of thought by this point, so this is too distant to inform us about the nature of the antecedents of a pronoun paragraphs earlier.On the contrary, you have to explain why Paul has not been careful to explicitly distinguished those to whom the benefits of Christs death apply
"I will go to the restaurant from work, you will come there from home, and there we will have dinner. Oh, let me here explicitly disclaim that we're not going to have dinner with additional people that I haven't mentioned." This feels like a natural way to speak to you?
If such passages exist, they're not talking about the atonement, otherwise they affirm universalism, which they don't.Except that scripture explicitly says that Christ died for all.
I'm not describing the gospel as being an inaccessible provision. I'm describing it as not being provisional.You cannot describe God's provision as good news if it is not accessible to all men.
Upvote
0