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What did Paul preach to the Corinthians?

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OzSpen

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Hammster

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However, when your communication was not clear to me, I asked for clarification. Isn't that an OK thing to do on this forum?

Yes. But you called my response a red herring. And it wasn't.
 
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sdowney717

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I would model an evangelical outreach to unbelievers based on what the apostles told people to do to be saved.
Did they anywhere directly tell them that Christ died for their sins?
Perhaps a review of what they really said to the unsaved could settle the matter.
 
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sdowney717

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Here is how they told them to be saved
 
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sdowney717

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Here is how Peter told them to be saved
 
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sdowney717

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Another one with Peter, note v43
In this passage Peter does not tell unbelievers He died for their sins.
Peter does say He died and rose again to be judge of the living and the dead.

 
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Light of the East

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Does this whole post actually have a point to it?
 
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FreeGrace2

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Right.

So what did he say to the Corinthians when he initially preached to them? What did he say to the crowd that included non-believers?
To be clear, the whole crowd were unbelievers when Paul first preached in Corinth. We know this because of what Paul wrote in Rom 15:20 -

And thus I aspired to preach the gospel, not where Christ was already named, so that I would not build on another man’s foundation.

It is clear that Paul went where the name of Christ had not been preached.

Therefore, it is clear that his message to crowds full of unbelievers who had never heard the name of Christ was that Christ died for their sins.

His use of "us" clearly indicates that he was including the crowds along with him regarding who Christ died for.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Janx,

"our sins" here mean the group of believers.
Impossible, because Paul's ministry was to preach where the name of Christ had not been preached before, per Rom 15:20.

The Corinthians had not heard the name of Christ before they heard Paul preach that Christ died for "our" (meaning the crowd's and Paul's) sins.
 
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FreeGrace2

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He doesn't say.
Yes, he did say. 1 Cor 15:1-11 is a reminder to the believers of what he initially preached to them before they believed. We know this from v.11 - Whether then it was I or they, so we preach and so you believed.

Notice the tense of "believED". It's what he preached to those who had never heard the name of Christ (Rom 15:20) and it's what they believed.

But to tell a group of believers that Christ died for our sins is normative language.
Paul indicates that it is also normative language to tell a crowd of those who have never heard the name of Christ that Christ died for their sins. Because He did.

Janx, Christ died for our sins.
And that's exactly what Paul told crowds of unbelievers when he went to Corinth where no one had heard the name of Christ before (Rom 15:20).
 
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FreeGrace2

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If I'm talking to believers I would say that Christ died for our sins. Paul is talking to a group that he has a relationship with.
To be clear, Paul was remindING that group of what he first preachED to them and what they had believED.

They didn't believe that Christ had died for their sins until Paul preachED that to them. And they believed it. That's the gospel that believers are to tell unbelievers; that Christ died for "our" sins, meaning theirs and ours.

That's the use of the first person plural. You include those you are addressing. Christ died for their sins, and all of them were unbelievers who had never heard the name of Christ until Paul came and preachED to them, which they believED.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Christ died for sinners. You are a sinner. To receive forgiveness for your sins you must repent of your sins believe on The Lord Jesus Christ.
The point is that the Bible never says that Christ died for SOME sinners. There is no limitation placed on how many sinners Christ died for. And 1 Cor 15:1-11 is crystal clear that the crowd who had never heard the name of Christ heard that Christ died for their sins.

Later I could say that I preached that Christ died for our sins. And it would be true.
But the point is that Paul remindED the believers of what he intially preachED to them before they had heard the name of Christ.

Paul didn't come to the First Baptist Church of Corinth, or the Redemmer Presbyterian Church of Corinth with his message.

No, he preachED to crowds that had not heard the name of Christ before Paul came and preachEd to them, which they believED.

Evangelism in action.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Exactly. The use of "our" in v.3 indicates what Paul preachED to the crowds who had not heard the name of Christ before. They were all unbelievers, and the ones he wrote to had believED the message that Paul preachED to them.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Janx, the apostles all preached salvation in His name throughout the earth not distinguishing one from another as elect or not.
This is not the issue at all. 1 Cor 15:1-11 is a remindER to the believers in Corinth of what Paul preachED to them before they had heard the name of Christ. None of them were believers when Paul first preachED to them. They believED the message that Paul preachEd to them.
 
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FreeGrace2

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I'll pull a Janx on you. Someone in the crowd asks "What does it mean that Christ died for my sins? Does that mean He took the punishment?"
The answer is a resounding "yes"!!!! Which is very good news. What follows is better. If you place your trust in Christ for eternal life, He will give it to you.
 
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FreeGrace2

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My statement had nothing to do with limited or unlimited atonement. It was a statement to believers. It could be one that I make to you.
But all this is a red herring, hammster. Because Paul was reminding the believers of what he had preachED to them before they believED the message. In fact, he pointED out that this is what he preachED, and this is what you (the Corinthian believers) believED.

You have to deny the clarity of the past tenses that the translators used to translate what Paul was saying to them.

Paul wasn't just telling believers that Christ died for them. He was telling them what he had intially preachED to them before they believED.

So since I have repeatedly told you that it has nothing to do with limited or unlimited atonement
The scope of Christ's death has EVERYTHING to do with the atonement. He atoned for the sins of everyone he died for. Paul told crowds of unbelievers who had never heard the name of Christ that Christ died for their sins.

And your use of those verses has been refuted every time.
I am seeing the claim, but I have not seen any refutation yet. Could you point me to a specific post in which a refutation was given, please?
 
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FreeGrace2

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I would model an evangelical outreach to unbelievers based on what the apostles told people to do to be saved.
Did they anywhere directly tell them that Christ died for their sins?
YES, ABSOLUTELY!!! That is the point of Paul's review of what he had preachED to them, and what they had believED.

Perhaps a review of what they really said to the unsaved could settle the matter.
That is the exact OP. 1 Cor 15:1-11 is a review of what Paul preachED to crowds of those who had never heard the name of Christ.

And here is what he preachED to those crowds:
"Christ died for our sins, according to the Scriptures".

This affirms from Paul that the OT taught that Christ died for everyone's sins.
 
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