"Fallacious" is an inflammatory term:
I can assure you that I am not writing with an intent or mislead. Furthermore, other than labeling it as fallacious, you did not provide any example of where my logic was incorrect. This feels like an ad-hominem attack
Where did you get that I was providing an analysis with an assumption that God does not exist? I wrote:
I don't understand your use of the word "advocate." To my understanding, when "advocate" is used as a noun, it is a person. I Perhaps you meant "
So you ARE ADVOCATING here is that a Creed cannot exist as a standard?" looked up the definition as below.
You are trying to put words in my mouth. I never said anything about if a creed COULD exist as a standard. In fact, I can think of several situations where a creed could be used as a standard:
- God Himself gives a short list of items to be remembered -- for example the 10 commandments.
- God sends a vision to a verified prophet with a message that a particular creed should be adopted by all
- Jesus specified that a particular creed should be followed
But short of that, if the Bible, which is closer to the source of truth, doesn't contain a creed, then I current would say that a creed SHOULD not be used as a standard. Notice the difference between COULD and SHOULD.
Agreed.
OK. I think you are saying that Chinese historical documents don't show the same level of accuracy as sources used in the Bible. I'm not personally sure, but I won't disagree.
I think you are saying that God had a hand in guiding the formation of the scriptures. If so, I agree. I wrote that in a former post.
Here is where I feel your logic falls apart. You were showing how the scriptures seemed to have been carefully preserved through time, with a degree of accuracy that exceeds that found in Chinese historical documents. And then you jump to support of a particular Creed. But there is nothing in former that extends to the later. Essentially, I hear you saying, "God supported the scriptures, therefore God also supported the Creeds." That may be true, but you have not given evidence of that. Could I not use the same chain of reasoning to say that, for example, the Gospel of Thomas (a NON-cannonical gnostic gospel) is good. E.g. "God supported scriptures, therefore God also supported the Gospel of Thomas." (I DONT think this, I'm using it as a glaring counter-example).
And having variation of creeds, by itself, would not hinder one of them being adopted by human church leaders. But the fact that there are so many shows to me that not everyone agreed even at the time. Again, disagreement about creeds led to the split of the unified catholic church into the slightly-less catholic church of the east and west. So to now, in 2024, say that one of these particular creeds is somehow akin to scriptures is not justified.
I am not opposed to the above creed. It seems overall good. If you give me a few minutes, I could come up with one I agree more with. I might leave out the details about Pontius Pilate. Seems a bit unfair to pick Pilate out instead of, say, Annas the High Priest or Judas his disciple
I disagree with the part about Jesus going to Hell (i.e. the lake of fire that is described in the Bible to come AFTER the 2nd coming). More about that
here and
here.
And what is meant by "the communion of saints"? I found
this site that states:
So now the creed, which was supposed to be a condensation of many concepts into a brief litany has intruded even more opportunity for varying interpretation.
This creed, and any other creed makes assumptions about underlying beliefs. Pick any arbitrary denomination and look at their statement of beliefs. You will likely agree with 90% of what is written there. Do you want them to be somehow turned into Canon Truth? If so, what about the 10% that you think is not correct? Would you have opportunity to think about things for yourself?
If you are given the choice between the Bible, or the Cliff Notes for the Bible, which would you recommend? I'll pick the Bible every time.
KT