I'm talking about before the Incarnation. Christ was the Son of God, and the Father was His Father. Do you not believe this?
What was Jesus prior to him becoming the "son of God" in the heavenly realm?
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I'm talking about before the Incarnation. Christ was the Son of God, and the Father was His Father. Do you not believe this?
This is not an answer to my question. Nonetheless, I will address it: Christ has always with the Father. The Father was always the Father, and the Son always the Son.What was Jesus prior to him becoming the "son of God" in the heavenly realm?
Until you acknowledge foundational LDS beliefs (like Jesus Christ is the Son of God and 100% divine) there no point talking about more advance subjects.
You have been told this answer repeatedly: there is no "prior" to Christ being the Son of God. Your question is flawed.Oh, I believe you believe it..but do you really expect me to believe it when you refuse to answer my question?
Q What was Jesus prior to becoming the son of god? Why will you not answer that question?
A ______________________________________________________________________
You have been told this answer repeatedly: there is no "prior" to Christ being the Son of God. Your question is flawed.
Again, your understanding is flawed. You keep using the word "born", which in our limited human understanding typically involves a physical screaming child coming out of a birth canal. This is not the case.So, the son of god always was...then was born of a heavenly mother...and became..the son of god? Can you see the problem?
Which I have repeatedly said LDS believe. You have ignored me.Secondly, the bible says there is only one God.
Again, there is no Jesus "becoming" God. There is no "second God".That's what it say's in Isaiah 43 as well as other passages...now along comes Jesus....born of a heavenly mother...is that when Jesus became God? A second God with a common "goal" so to speek?
Again, there is no Jesus "becoming" God. There is no "second God".
No flip-flopping, you're not listening. There are THREE persons in ONE eternal God.But, but, but...you said in a previous post Jesus was God.. a second god...not God the father..just the same in agreement.
Either that or you keep flip flopping.
So, mormonism is now trinitarian? Does this picture depict your belief?No flip-flopping, you're not listening. There are THREE persons in ONE eternal God.
If the connectors are not from a shared substance (an idea foreign to the Bible) but one in unity.So, mormonism is now trinitarian? Does this picture depict your belief?
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Do I need to post John 1:1 again?
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.
The Word (Jesus) was, is, always was and never wasn't God.
So, mormonism is now trinitarian? Does this picture depict your belief?
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Any individual who is perfect in righteousness has the authority and power of God, Jesus in all stages of his progression has been perfect in righteousness and so always part of the Elohim(s).
The Bible teaches that we too are gods, the offspring of God. But since we are not perfect in our righteousness as of yet we do not have the authority of God.
Having said that let's look at how you have set the Bible against itself.
You said; Useing John 1 you have assumed it means "The Word (Jesus) was, is, always was and never wasn't God"
But what did Jesus say about that;
Matt 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
John 17: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh,
John 5:
26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
27 And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man.
If Jesus has always been God then why did the power and authority need to be given to him? He would have always had it???
John 14: 28 .....I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
John 20: 17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
If Jesus and the Father are one unit then how can the Father be greater than he is? If God is this being that fills the universe and is everywhere then how is it Jesus needs to ascend to him? Wouldn't He be right there? How can he go to a place which does not exist?
How is it he is his own God and Father?
Heb 1: 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things,
If Christ has always been God then how can he be an heir? All things would already belong to him!
Heb 1:4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they....he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
How is it Jesus was made, wouldn't he have created the angels? Why do they have to be told to worship him?
Heb 1:9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
What need was there for an anointing if he was always God, why is he anointing himself?
I'm waiting for your answer!
I did, and only one of all the scriptures that were given even came close to the subject of 'eternal sonship', and that was Hebrews 13:8, but the author then destroyed this scripture by using the words, 'seems to indicate' and 'seems to imply', so it became fairly meaningless.Click the yes in my previous post.
Didn't we talk about the kenosis in a previous thread? Where Jesus who is God from the eternity past empties Himself? God became a bondservant? Have you always ignored Phil 2?
Didn't we talk about the kenosis in a previous thread? Where Jesus who is God from the eternity past empties Himself? God became a bondservant? Have you always ignored Phil 2?