if Christians are to formulate a meaningful and logical response to the issue of whether or not consensual sexual activity in the context of a loving, committed, life-long relationship between two individuals of the same gender is immoral or sinful, then we must also be able to show why sexual activity between two women is sinful, and where the Bible states this.
there is only one (possible) reference to female homosexual activity in the Bible, in contrast to a number of (highly contested) references to male homosexual activity.
Romans 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: 21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. 22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, 23 And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. 24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: 25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen. 26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
if homosexual intercourse is inherently more immoral than heterosexual intercourse, then female homosexual intercourse must be as immoral as male homosexual intercourse. if that is the case, then we must be able to provide a meaningful answer to the question: why doesn't God talk about lesbianism?
even if we assume that this passage does talk about female homosexual activity (because of the ensuing discussion of male homosexual activity), it still doesn't condemn it as sin, but merely as "against nature."
why is lesbianism ignored in this way if it is as immoral as male homosexuality? is it possible that the reasons for the condemnation of male homosexual practices in the OT law are not related to sexual orientation, or is it because all homosexuality is implied under male homosexuality, or is there some other reason. please show Scriptural, historical, philosophical, &c. proof for your point of view.
there is only one (possible) reference to female homosexual activity in the Bible, in contrast to a number of (highly contested) references to male homosexual activity.
Romans 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: 21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. 22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, 23 And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. 24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: 25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen. 26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
if homosexual intercourse is inherently more immoral than heterosexual intercourse, then female homosexual intercourse must be as immoral as male homosexual intercourse. if that is the case, then we must be able to provide a meaningful answer to the question: why doesn't God talk about lesbianism?
even if we assume that this passage does talk about female homosexual activity (because of the ensuing discussion of male homosexual activity), it still doesn't condemn it as sin, but merely as "against nature."
why is lesbianism ignored in this way if it is as immoral as male homosexuality? is it possible that the reasons for the condemnation of male homosexual practices in the OT law are not related to sexual orientation, or is it because all homosexuality is implied under male homosexuality, or is there some other reason. please show Scriptural, historical, philosophical, &c. proof for your point of view.