Matthew 5:17
“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.
He didn't abolish the law; and earth is still here.
(CLV) Lk 16:17
Yet it is easier for heaven and earth to pass by than for one serif of the law to fall.
Romans 10:4
For Christ is the end of the
law for righteousness to everyone who believes.
Certainly Paul is not contradicting himself. Can you explain the subtle difference between these two verses?
(CLV) Php 3:6
in relation to zeal, persecuting the ecclesia, in relation to the
righteousness which is in law, becoming blameless.
Paul mentions 8 types of law in that letter.
Here he makes it clear which one we are supposed to be slaves to.:
(CLV) Ro 7:25
I thank God, through Jesus Christ, our Lord. Consequently, then, I myself, with the mind, indeed, am slaving for God's law, yet with the flesh for Sin's law.
Galatians 4:4-5
But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as sons.
If we are obedient to YHWH, in Yahshua, then we are not under the curses of the law. There is no sin in Messiah.
Romans 8:4
in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
Paul says it again here:
(CLV) 1Co 11:1
Become imitators of me, according as I also am of Christ.
Galatians 3:17-24
This is what I mean: the law, which came 430 years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void. For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise. Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary. Now an intermediary implies more than one, but God is one. Is the law then contrary to the promises of God? Certainly not!
For if a law had been given that could give life, then righteousness would indeed be by the law.
In contrast, Paul says this.:
(CLV) Ro 2:12
for whoever sinned without law,
without law also shall perish, and whoever sinned in law, through law will be judged.
It's YHWH who gives us life. Those who rebel against his word, perish. This was the message from the beginning.
Matthew 7:12
“So whatever you wish that others would do to you, do also to them, for this is the Law and the Prophets.
Paul backs his assertion with the Law in this verse.
Psalm 40:6-8
In sacrifice and offering you have not delighted, but you have given me an open ear. Burnt offering and sin offering you have not required. Then I said, “Behold, I have come; in the scroll of the book it is written of me: I delight to do your will, O my God; your law is within my heart.”
YHWH never wanted sacrifice. He wants obedience to his directions (his will, his law).
When Yah's people were in exile, and couldn't make sacrifices. they were forgiven through repentance.
Same with the Gentiles at Nineveh. They were saved through repentance.
Colossians 2:16-17
Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath. These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ.
No doubt! We are not to let the Ascetics judge us for honoring YHWH's eternal appointments.
I created a short study on this verse here:
Colossians 2:16
Matthew 3:15
But Jesus answered him, “Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he consented.
This verse does not say that Yahshua fulfilled all of the Torah (law).
In fact, nothing you've posted here supports that assertion.
