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Was Jesus sent ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel?
- Thread starter GeorgeTwo
- Start date
As I understand it the word translated as "dogs" is more accurately translated as "puppies." Notice the woman took no offense.
Also, notice that the Messiah helped her, which would indicate the Gentiles were to be included in His message. First to the Jews, then to the Gentiles.
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originally posted by Truth light
You are welcome.
I am taking it easy. You mistake my approach as something uneasy? I don't waste a lot of time by trying to be PC. I am a straight shooter, but try to be respectful towards everyone.
I already told you in the last post: all but the Roman passage. Why do you need to know, other than to try to cast doubts upon Jesus' sayings so that you can tell us that we don't really know what Jesus said, or that we can't be sure. This is to make the other passages that don't agree with Islamic teaching to be dismissed, therefore, upholding the Qu'ran. Honestly, that is all that I can surmise as to why you ask. For anyone reading those passages and observing surrounding context, they can easily see that it is Jesus speaking directly to Israel. Why don't you see that? It only causes me to believe that you haven't read and studied the passages yourself. Am I incorrect?
Thanks for the last paragraph, take it easy
You are welcome.
I am taking it easy. You mistake my approach as something uneasy? I don't waste a lot of time by trying to be PC. I am a straight shooter, but try to be respectful towards everyone.
I already told you in the last post: all but the Roman passage. Why do you need to know, other than to try to cast doubts upon Jesus' sayings so that you can tell us that we don't really know what Jesus said, or that we can't be sure. This is to make the other passages that don't agree with Islamic teaching to be dismissed, therefore, upholding the Qu'ran. Honestly, that is all that I can surmise as to why you ask. For anyone reading those passages and observing surrounding context, they can easily see that it is Jesus speaking directly to Israel. Why don't you see that? It only causes me to believe that you haven't read and studied the passages yourself. Am I incorrect?
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Why is it that you (Muslims in particular) always do this stuff. Please read the passages that I gave you and look at the surrounding context to see that it was Jesus stated. From there, draw logical conclusion without your Islamic biases involved. It is necessary to be studious and read with an intent to understand. I would not expect any less of you.
The fact is that Jesus was sent to Israel only because His ministry was meant to be given to the Jews first. Why? Because they were the Oracle of God. He would not go outside of them before He dealt with them first. He had to inform them of the Old Covenant (OT) and fulfill it before a new covenant could be made that included the Gentiles. There is prophecy in the OT that tells Israel that a new covenant will be made with them as well as the Gentiles being blessed by the Abrahamic Covenant. After Jesus' fulfilled the Law of the Prophets (OT) by dying and resurrecting, the New Covenant (NT) was ushered in, thus fulfilling the OT prophecies. That is a basic over view of the matter. Please study and think without putting your Islamic biases into the Bible. If you don't change, you will forever be ignorant and misunderstand who the real Jesus is. The true Jesus cannot be found in the Qu'ran.
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There is no contradiction. Jesus' message was first to go to the Jews for the reasons stated and then after they heard the message, Jesus' message was to go to all of the nations, all mankind, Jew and Gentile alike.
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I think Muslims have to come up with an excuse that Jesus' Message was only to the Jews because if Jesus' message was for the Gentiles too, that means them -- the Muslims.
And where would that leave the prophet of Islam -- Muhammad?
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Yep! That is succinctly stated. Also, consider that they need to make the Bible fit into their Islamic teachings--specifically the Qu'ran.
Honestly, how can a Muslim make statements about the Bible without reading all related passages concerning the question they pose? It is evident that they haven't studied, but are just parroting information they have either learned or have heard. Remember that they have already been convinced that the Qu'ran is true without much verification, other than 'it is because it is'.
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The messiah did indeed help her but with great reluctance.
Ofcourse there is no comparison with mohammad who advocated and practiced murder and slavery of non-muslims.
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In regard to this topic Muslims do seem to pick and choose and single out one of two verses and then ignore what disproves their position.
I could do the same with the Qur'an, use a couple of verses, and say Muhammad was only sent to Arabs.
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The Messiah pointed to her faith:
28 Then Jesus said to her, Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted. And her daughter was healed at that moment.
Apparently this woman had faith that the Messiah would not only help her, but had the power to help her.
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- Feb 4, 2006
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Jesus was sent, by God the Father, to the lost sheep of 'the house of Israel'. He began his actual ministry not in Judea among the Jews, but in Galilee where he found 'sheep' that were 'lost', without a 'shepherd'. These were certainly remnants of the ten tribes. That they were called the 'house of Israel' probably means that they would be the seedstock for the restoration of those tribes, in fulfillment of prophecy. The Jews had their shepherds; the scribes and Pharisees. Delivering the gospel to the greater gentile world didn't have to be accomplished by Jesus himself. He sent Paul to begin that work.
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Let's not forget Peter and Cornelius.
And others besides Paul also preached to the Gentiles.
And the decision of the Jerusalem Council was to reach out to the Gentiles.
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Booko
Poultry in Motion
OK, I have a little problem with this one, peaceful soul, because Matt 24:14 referred to the end times, which means it did not apply to Jesus during the First Coming. Second Coming, ok, no prob.
But as far as I've followed this discussion so far, this has to do with whether Gospel Jesus preached during the First Coming was intended only for Jews.
re: your other cites. Yes, I agree. It takes very selective reading of the NT to take the view that the Gospel was only intended for Jews.
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Booko
Poultry in Motion
Please cite so we can discuss context.
First question: Was Jesus referring to others as dogs because that was His opinion or was the reference intended as a lesson to those listening around Him because that was *their* opinion of Gentiles?
Please support from the text.
Thanks.
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Booko
Poultry in Motion
It's about as contradictory writing a novel in English first, intended for English speakers, and then later moving to translate it so others in the world could enjoy it.
It makes more sense to take the Gospel to the Jews first, both geographically and culturally, and then move on from there.
It's not like the ancient world had the Internetz where you could put it out for everyone at once....
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