I have admitted nothing! I consider your refusal to address the 23 vss. as an admission that I am correct and you are wrong. Here are the first three from that list.
…..According to three irrefutable Jewish sources; the Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Judaica and the Talmud, quoted below, among the Jews in Israel before and during the time of Jesus there was a belief in a place of everlasting torment of the wicked and they called it both sheol and gehinnom.
…..There were different groups within Judaism; Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes etc. and there were different beliefs about resurrection, hell etc. That there were other beliefs does not change or disprove anything in this post.
Jewish Encyclopedia, Gehenna[Note, this is according to the ancient Jews, long before the Christian era, NOT any supposed bias of Christian translators. DA]
The place where children were sacrificed to the god Moloch … in the "valley of the son of Hinnom," to the south of Jerusalem (Josh. xv. 8, passim; II Kings xxiii. 10; Jer. ii. 23; vii. 31-32; xix. 6, 13-14). … the valley was deemed to be accursed, and "Gehenna" therefore soon became a figurative equivalent for "hell." Hell, like paradise, was created by God (Sotah 22a);
(I)n general …sinners go to hell immediately after their death. The famous teacher Johanan b. Zakkai wept before his death because he did not know whether he would go to paradise or to hell (Ber. 28b). The pious go to paradise, and sinners to hell (B.M. 83b).When Jesus taught about e.g.,
But as regards the heretics, etc., and Jeroboam, Nebat's son, hell shall pass away, but they shall not pass away" (R. H. 17a; comp. Shab. 33b). All that descend into Gehenna shall come up again, with the exception of three classes of men: those who have committed adultery, or shamed their neighbors, or vilified them (B. M. 58b).[/i]
… heretics and the Roman oppressors go to Gehenna, and the same fate awaits the Persians, the oppressors of the Babylonian Jews (Ber. 8b). When Nebuchadnezzar descended into hell, [ שׁאול /Sheol]] all its inhabitants were afraid that he was coming to rule over them (Shab. 149a; comp. Isa. xiv. 9-10). The Book of Enoch [x. 6, xci. 9, etal] also says that it is chiefly the heathen who are to be cast into the fiery pool on the Day of Judgment (x. 6, xci. 9, et al). "The Lord, the Almighty, will punish them on the Day of Judgment by putting fire and worms into their flesh, so that they cry out with pain unto all eternity" (Judith xvi. 17). The sinners in Gehenna will be filled with pain when God puts back the souls into the dead bodies on the Day of Judgment, according to Isa. xxxiii. 11 (Sanh. 108b).
Link: Jewish Encyclopedia Online
Note, scripture references are highlighted in blue.
=================
Encyclopedia Judaica:
Gehinnom (Heb. גֵּי בֶן־הִנֹּם, גֵּי בְנֵי הִנֹּם, גֵּיא בֶן־הִנֹּם, גֵּיא הִנֹּם; Gr. Γέεννα; "Valley of Ben-Hinnom, Valley of [the Son (s) of] Hinnom," Gehenna), a valley south of Jerusalem on one of the borders between the territories of Judah and Benjamin, between the Valley of *Rephaim and *En-Rogel (Josh. 15:8; 18:16). It is identified with Wadi er-Rababi.
…..During the time of the Monarchy, Gehinnom, at a place called Topheth, was the site of a cult which involved the burning of children (II Kings 23:10; Jer. 7:31; 32:35 et al.; see *Moloch). Jeremiah repeatedly condemned this cult and predicted that on its account Topheth and the Valley of the Son of Hinnom would be called the Valley of the "Slaughter" (Jer. 19:5–6).
In Judaism the name Gehinnom is generally used as an appellation of the place of torment reserved for the wicked after death. The New Testament used the Greek form Gehenna in the same sense.
Gehinnom
= = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = = =
Talmud -Tractate Rosh Hashanah Chapter 1.
The school of Hillel says: . . . but as for Minim, [followers of Jesus] informers and disbelievers, who deny the Torah, or Resurrection, or separate themselves from the congregation, or who inspire their fellowmen with dread of them, or who sin and cause others to sin, as did Jeroboam the son of Nebat and his followers, they all descend to Gehenna, and are judged there from generation to generation, as it is said [Isa. lxvi. 24]: "And they shall go forth and look upon the carcases of the men who have transgressed against Me; for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched." Even when Gehenna will be destroyed, they will not be consumed, as it is written [Psalms, xlix. 15]: "And their forms wasteth away in the nether world," which the sages comment upon to mean that their forms shall endure even when the grave is no more. Concerning them Hannah says [I Sam. ii. 10]: "The adversaries of the Lord shall be broken to pieces."
Link: Tract Rosh Hashana: Chapter I.
• “Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:” Matthew 25:41These teachings tacitly reaffirmed and sanctioned the existing Jewish view of eternal hell, outlined above. In Matt. 18:6, 26:24 and Luk 10:12, see above, Jesus teaches that there is a punishmen than death or nonexistence. A punishment worse than death without mercy is also mentioned in Hebrews 10:28-31.
• "these shall go away into eternal punishment, Matthew 25:46"
• "the fire of hell where the fire is not quenched and the worm does not die, Mark 9:43-48"
• "cast into a fiery furnace where there will be wailing and gnashing of teeth,” Matthew 13:42, Matthew 13:50
• “But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea.” Matthew 18:6
• “And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.” Matthew 7:23
• “woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born. ” Matthew 26:24
• “But I say unto you, that it shall be more tolerable in that day for Sodom, than for that city.” Luke 10:12
Heb 10:28 He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:Jesus is quoted as using the word death 17 times in the gospels, if He wanted to say eternal death in Matt 25:46, that is what He would have said but He didn’t, He said “eternal punishment.” The Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection, they knew that everybody died; rich, poor, young, old, good, bad, men, women, children, infants and knew that it had nothing to do with punishment and was permanent. When Jesus taught “eternal punishment” they would not have understood it as merely death, it would have meant something worse to them.
29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
30 For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.
31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.
…..Concerning “punishment” one early church father wrote,
“‘Then these reap no advantage from their punishment, as it seems: moreover, I would say that they are not punished unless they are conscious of the punishment.” Justin Martyr [A.D. 110-165.] Dialogue with Trypho Chapter 4…..Jesus undoubtedly knew what the Jews, believed about hell. If the Jews were wrong, why would Jesus teach “eternal punishment,” etc. to Jews who believed, "The Lord, the Almighty, will punish them on the Day of Judgment by putting fire and worms into their flesh, so that they cry out with pain unto all eternity," which only reinforced those beliefs.
.....You also seem to be ignoring the fact that, although Jesus criticized or corrected the Jewish leaders on their beliefs several times, He never specifically told the Jews that their belief in a place of eternal fiery punishment of the wicked was wrong?
.....According to the Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Judaica and the Talmud, among the Jews in Israel before and during the time of Jesus was a belief in a place of everlasting torment of the wicked and they called it both sheol and gehinnom.
If that is true why didn't Jesus criticize the Jews about those supposedly pagan philosophies?It is likely that the Jews still held onto many old myths previously created by random pagan philosophy. That does not make them true just because they might have still believed some of it.
The idea of an underworld being a place where the dead are tortured far predates the Israelites.
If that is true why didn't Jesus criticize the Jews about those supposedly pagan philosophies?
Here are some of teachings of Jesus on the fate of the unrepentant.
You quite evidently do not even know what "cut & paste" means. It does not refer to quoting from grammars, lexicons, encyclopedias etc. as I do. "Cut & paste" usually refers to copying something written by another person giving his/her opinion about the topic. Which is what you do.That cut & paste has been answered many times before (while OTOH many of my posts you have not answered), e.g.:
Although Jesus taught about "eternal punishment,""hell where the fire is not quenched and the worm does not die" etc. He never criticized the Jewish belief in hell and He never said or implied that everyone will be saved, no matter what.But He did:
Since you have not stated or demonstrated any expertise in Greek and probably could not parse or conjugate a Greek verb if your life depended on it your unsupported opinion of what words you think Jesus should have used, in any situation, does not have any merit.If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:
Many Jews were destroyed but many survived. Read some real history, such as Josephus.Who cares. Many "Jews in Israel" rejected Christ, especially the endless hell pushers/Pharisees, & were destroyed in 70 AD by Roman legions.
How the Jews interpreted the OT scriptures and how they based their faith and practice on those scriptures are not myths. Jesus never directly criticized the Jewish belief in hell."Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14).
I have dissected and shredded all of your arguments before as I have done in this post.And your entire post was already dissected, piece by piece, here:
I don't think he mentioned any philosophies of theirs at all. Only that they claimed to follow the law, but were indeed wicked in their hearts.If that is true why didn't Jesus criticize the Jews about those supposedly pagan philosophies?
You quite evidently do not even know what "cut & paste" means.
"Cut & paste" usually refers to copying something written by another person giving his/her opinion about the topic.
Although Jesus taught about "eternal punishment,"
Let us look at this verse again:
"And these shall go away into eternal (aiōnios) punishment: but the righteous into life eternal (aiōnios)" (Mt.25:26).Since the structure of this verse is best described as being a "parallelism" then the Greek word aiōnios must carry with it the same meaning in both instances where it is used.
He never criticized the Jewish belief in hell
and He never said or implied that everyone will be saved,
Since you have not stated or demonstrated any expertise in Greek
your unsupported opinion of what words you think Jesus should have used, in any situation, does not have any merit.
Many Jews were destroyed but many survived. Read some real history, such as Josephus.
How the Jews interpreted the OT scriptures and how they based their faith and practice on those scriptures are not myths.
Jesus never directly criticized the Jewish belief in hell.
I have dissected and shredded all of your arguments before as I have done in this post.
I'll tell you like I told another guy. Since you have not stated or demonstrated any expertise in Greek and probably could not parse or conjugate a Greek verb if your life depended on it your unsupported opinion of what words you think Jesus should have used, in any situation, does not have any merit.He did, He showed them their belief in ECT was incorrect by using the word aion and its adjective which means of unknown duration. If Jesus was in support of eternal torment he would have used aidios
Look what thoughts will do. Jesus not mentioning any of the philosophies of the Jewish leaders.I don't think he mentioned any philosophies of theirs at all. Only that they claimed to follow the law, but were indeed wicked in their hearts.
I really don't care what you call cut/copy and paste. What is relevant is what is the commonly accepted meaning.Clearly you don't know what i meant by the phrase. OTOH, I know what i meant by the phrase, which i used as an equivalent for copy and paste, as in your post which you've copied and pasted many times.
Another out-of-context proof text which does not prove what you think it does. What did Paul mean by "in Christ?"Then, by the same reasoning, the "parallel" in Rom.5:19 proves Scriptural universalism to be true:
1 Cor.15:22 AS in Adam ALL die SO ALSO in Christ shall ALL be made alive.
1 Cor.15:28 And when ALL shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put ALL under him, that God may be all in ALL.
Wrong as always. Yet another out-of-context proof text which I have addressed before. Of course it is NOT God's will to afflict and grieve the sons of men, but because of men's rebellion and disobedience His justice demands punishment.And your translation of Mt.25:46 contradicts this translation of Lamentations 3:
Lam.3:31 For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
32 For if He causes grief, Then He will have compassion According to His abundant lovingkindness. 33 For He does not afflict willingly Or grieve the SONS OF MEN.
When read in-context all the verses harmonize perfectly, as I have shown above.While these translations (& others) of Mt.25:46 are in harmony with all the verses above i have posted:
Irrelevant, deceptive response. I anticipated this argument and responded to it in my post. That the Jews had different beliefs is irrelevant to my post, it does not refute or disprove anything I said.No doubt the Jews had varying beliefs about hell, not just one belief. Even your own post acknowledged that.
I have more expertise than you do and I don't post my unsupported opinion as you do. I quote from grammars. lexicons ECF etc.Neither do you have "expertise in Greek"
I don't do links to random websites which neither state nor demonstrate the requisite expertise. Just because someone said something on his blog does not make it true.My opinon was supported by the following which you ignored & have never addressed let alone refuted:
Origen even makes so-called "eternal life" ("eonian life" in literal translations) finite when he speaks of "after eternal life" & "beyond eternal life":
(19) "And after eternal life, perhaps it will also leap into the Father who is beyond eternal life. For Christ is life but he who is greater than Christ is greater than life." (Origen's Commentary on John 13:19).
Commentary on the Gospel According to John, Books 13-32, By Origen [page 73]:
Great post.Look what thoughts will do. Jesus not mentioning any of the philosophies of the Jewish leaders.
Matthew 5:27-28
(27) Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
(28) But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Matthew 5:31-32
(31) It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
(32) But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Matthew 5:33-34
(33) Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:
(34) But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:
Matthew 5:38-39
(38) Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:
(39) But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
Matthew 5:43-44
(43) Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
(44) But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
Matthew 5:27-28
(27) Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
(28) But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Matthew 5:31-32
(31) It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
(32) But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Matthew 5:33-34
(33) Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:
(34) But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:
Matthew 5:38-39
(38) Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:
(39) But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
Matthew 5:43-44
(43) Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
(44) But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
Matthew 5:27-28, Mark 12:38-40
Another out-of-context proof text which does not prove what you think it does. What did Paul mean by "in Christ?"
1Co_15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made aliveThose who are not "in Christ" are not "Christ's workmanship."
Eph 2:10
(10) For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.
Eph 2:13Those not "in Christ" are still far off.
(13) But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Php 1:1Those not "in Christ" are not with the bishops and deacons.
(1) Paul and Timotheus, the servants of Jesus Christ, to all the saints in Christ Jesus which are at Philippi, with the bishops and deacons:
1Th 2:14Those not "in Christ" are not followers of the church of God.
(14) For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus: for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they have of the Jews:
??? said:"And these shall go away into eternal (aiōnios) punishment: but the righteous into life eternal (aiōnios)" (Mt.25:26).Since the structure of this verse is best described as being a "parallelism" then the Greek word aiōnios must carry with it the same meaning in both instances where it is used.
Some will be willfully subject to the Son, others, i.e. enemies will be forcefully subjected to the Son and will be His footstool.
Wrong as always. Yet another out-of-context proof text which I have addressed before. Of course it is NOT God's will to afflict and grieve the sons of men, but because of men's rebellion and disobedience His justice demands punishment.
Irrelevant, deceptive response.
He never criticized the Jewish belief in hell
Jesus never directly criticized the Jewish belief in hell.
I have more expertise than you do
In order for the phrase to be correctly translated "to the king of the ages" the noun βασιλει/basilei must be in the genitive case, as it is in the 29 times it is translated
"king of" in the NT. And that is why the NIV and NET translate 1 Tim 1:17 "king eternal."
and I don't post my unsupported opinion as you do.
I quote from grammars. lexicons ECF etc.
I don't do links to random websites which neither state nor demonstrate the requisite expertise.
Misrepresented out-of-context, second hand copy/paste which I have refuted more than once before. Even if true the unsupported opinion of one ECF does not a establish a grammar rule. As I have shown before the ONLY thing said to be "after eternal life" is the "fountain" which leaps into "eternal life" and the only thing said to be beyond "eternal life" is God who, alone, is greater than life. This says nothing about any "after eternal life." for believers.
Origen also quotes this without stating that it is incorrect..
(6o) And he has explained the statement, But “he shall not thirst forever:” as follows with these very words: for the life which comes from the well is eternal and never perishes, as indeed, does the first life which comes from the well,; the life he gives remains. For the grace and the gift of our Savior is not taken away, nor is it consumed, nor does it perish, when one partakes of it. P. 81Eternal life “never perishes,””remains.””is not taken away,””[is not] consumed,””[does not] perish.”
Commentary on the Gospel According to John cad=2#v=onepage&q&f=false
I have already refuted this many times before. Only God is beyond eternal life because only God is greater than life. End of discussion.
Your out-of-context quote says NOTHING about after or beyond eternal life for faithful believers.
Origen NEVER uses the term "after eternal life" or "beyond eternal life" any other time in any of his writings.
If Origen believed there was a after or beyond eternal life for believers his writings would be full of it.
However in Origen's Commentary to John he quotes Heraclon a contemporary.
(57) Let us also see what Heracleon says on these passages. He says that the [fountain and] the life and glory pertaining to it was insipid, temporary, and deficient, for it was physical. And he thinks he produces proof that it was physical from the fact that Jacob’s cattle drank from it.
(58) Now we would not object, if he took the knowledge that is in part to be insipid, temporary, and deficient, or that which is from the Scriptures in comparison with the words that cannot be spoken, that “it is not permitted to man to speak,” [or] all the present knowledge that is “through a mirror and a riddle”72 and is set aside when that which is perfect comes. But he would be culpable if he does this to slander the ancient words.
(59) He is not wrong, however, when he says that the water that the Savior gives is of his spirit and power.
(60) And he has explained the statement, “But he shall not thirst forever,” as follows with these very words: For the life he gives is eternal and never perishes, as, indeed, does the first life which comes from the well; the life he gives remains. For the grace and the gift of our Savior is not to be taken away, nor is it consumed, nor does it perish, when one partakes of it.
(61) He would be correct when he grants that the first life perishes if he meant that life which is according to the letter, when it seeks and discovers the life according to the Spirit by the removal of the veil. But, if he is accusing the ancient words of passing out of existence all together, it is clear that he does this because he does not perceive that those good words contain the shadow of future things.
(62) Now his interpretation of the “leaping water” is not unconvincing. He takes it to refer to those who partake of that which is richly supplied to them from above and who themselves cause what is supplied to them to gush out for the eternal life of others.
...
(67) And further, in reference to the clause, “He says to her,” Heracleon says that it is clear that he is saying something like this: If you wish to receive this water, go call your husband. Now he thinks that the one the Savior calls the Samaritan woman’s husband is her pleroma, and that by coming to the Savior with him she might be able to acquire power, unity, and union with her pleroma from him. For Heracleon says that he did not ask her to summon a physical husband, since indeed he would not have been ignorant of the fact that she did not have a lawful husband.
(68) But here he clearly distorts the text when he says that the Savior said to her, “Call your husband and come here,” meaning her consort from the pleroma. For if this were so, he would have to explain in what manner she must summon her husband that she might come to the Savior with him. P.82
When Heraclon is wrong Origen says so but when he quotes Heraclon saying,
For the life he gives is eternal and never perishes, as, indeed, does the first life which comes from the well; the life he gives remains. For the grace and the gift of our Savior is not to be taken away, nor is it consumed, nor does it perish, when one partakes of it.
Origen does not say Heraclon is wrong. Eternal life "never perishes,""remains,"'not taken away," and "does not perish." There is no way you can refute that.
I'll tell you like I told another guy. Since you have not stated or demonstrated any expertise in Greek and probably could not parse or conjugate a Greek verb if your life depended on it your unsupported opinion of what words you think Jesus should have used, in any situation, does not have any merit.
Matt 25 was spoken to the multitude but I'm sure that pharisees were there or had their spies there and word got back to them.Great post.
But those words were not directed at the Pharisees.They were on no level to comprehend such deep truth.
Their religion had blinded them.
<P3>Lol it looks like with all the learning you say you have it is you who lacks in expertise in Greek. The scriptures say the aion come to an end, you just keep refusing to believe those scriptures that say so just as you keep refusing to believe Jesus Christ is the saviour of all men just as the scriptures proclaim.begin
Yes it is funny, rather sad, how so many believe in UR over what scripture plainly says and they can only see the few out-of-context proof texts which when all other scripture is ignored seems to support their false assumptions/presuppositions.
All this empty copy/pasted verbosity holding up Origen as the end all, be all authority on the word "aionios" but when he says something which blows the UR boat completely out of the water, with zero knowledge of Greek, you try to blow it off. There is no difference between "eternal life" and "life that is eternal." Your objection "If aionios meant eternal, to add "and never perishes" would be redundant" is absurd....
Those statements also in harmony with Origen's view of an "after aionios life". The words of Heracleon do not speak of aionios life, but of life that is (1) aionios and (2) never perishes. If aionios meant eternal, to add "and never perishes" would be redundant.
<P3>Lol it looks like with all the learning you say you have it is you who lacks in expertise in Greek. The scriptures say the aion come to an end, you just keep refusing to believe those scriptures that say so just as you keep refusing to believe Jesus Christ is the saviour of all men just as the scriptures proclaim.
Funny how so many believe their doctrine over what scripture plainly says.<end>
Yes it is funny, rather sad, how so many believe in UR over what scripture plainly says and they can only see the few out-of-context proof texts which when all other scripture is ignored seems to support their false assumptions/presuppositions.
Matthew 16:26
(26) For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, [κόσμος/kosmos] and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?
John 12:19
(19) The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world [κόσμος/kosmos] is gone after him.
John 14:17
(17) Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world [κόσμος/kosmos] cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
Romans 1:8
(8) First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.[κόσμος/kosmos]
1 John 5:19
(19) And we know that we are of God, and the whole world [κόσμος/kosmos] lieth in wickedness.
Luke 2:1
(1) And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world [ οἰκουμένη/oikoumené] should be taxed
Can a person literally gain the "whole world?"
Did the "whole world" literally follow Jesus?
Can the entire world not receive the spirit of truth?
Can the "whole world" literally not receive Jesus?
Was the faith of the Roman Christians literally spoken of throughout the "whole world?"
Did Caesar literally tax the entire world?
Did the entire world lie in wickedness?
.....There is a word which describes how "world" is used in all these verses.
.....Now let us use false UR reasoning on these verses. "Whole world" cannot ever mean the entire planet earth because in these verses it does not, cannot refer to the entire planet earth. And like UR-ites we ignore any verses which contradict this presupposition.
BDAG, Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gingrich lexicon of NT Greek, does not define verses it defines words which word does this supposedly refer to so that one might read the entire entry in-context. Will address more points at another time.... BDAG says re Col.1:20:
"...found only in Christian writers...reconcile everything in his own person, i.e. the universe is to form a unity, which has its goal in Christ Col 1:20..." (A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament & Other Early Christian Literature (BDAG), 3rd edition, 2000, p.112). . .
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