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DaveW, I will re-research the term abomination and get back to you.
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But this woman they elected is sexually active presumably as she is married to another woman. Your point is irrelevant to the thread.A homosexual is defined as someone with same sex attraction.
That doesn't mean they have to act on it. They can choose to be celibate. If a homosexual priest or pastor lives celibately, there's no problem. Being tempted is not a sin.
Not all of the old testament law is inapplicable to Christians. Marriage is not affirmed in the bible between two of the same gender. If you can't become one sexually (in the right way) you can not BECOME one. And sex without marriage is a sin aka Adultery. So even if you for some reason throw away all of the old testament IT IS STILL WRONG. There is no evidence that God has changed. He never will. So besides what God/Jesus and the apostles have changed in the new testament like our eating habits, they did not change the fact that adultery and homosexuality is a sin.If you look at how abomination is used, it primarily used for impurity. Several of the things are not things that we would regard as immoral. E.g. Lev 7:18, eating an offering on the third day, or 11:13, eating the wrong kind of bird.
On the basis of this many commentators have tried to argue that abomination is about ritual impurity, but not immorality. I'm sure circuit rider will find some people who argue that as he investigates. Several writers that I generally find trustworthy say so. But I'm not convinced.
While it’s true that the uses are mostly for things that we don’t consider immoral today, it’s not so clear that the authors of Lev used it so consistent, or even that they would have distinguished between impurity and immorality. It seems reasonable to understand “these abominations” in 18:26 to refer to the whole section of 18:1-29. All of the offenses there are sexual. These are seen as fundamental enough that the former inhabitants of the land were “vomited out” for committing them.
Thus while “abominations” is often used for ritual impurity, I think the most natural reading of Lev 18 is that homosexuality (of whatever types you decide are covered by the wording) is one of several sexual sins that God considers grossly unacceptable.
My sense is that most Christians who accept homosexuality do not consider the code in Lev to be appropriate for Christians. But I don’t think it’s plausible that Lev considered it only to be ritual impurity.
You raise a very good question, which I will now answer.The Old Testament also calls eating shell fish an abomination, the wearing of mixed fabrics an abomination, etc. It is a term used to described forbidden religious practices. There are quite a few of the Old Testament religious practices that we no longer follow as Christians including the above.
I was replying to your mistaken comment that a homosexual cannot be a good example in the pulpit, when in fact a homosexual who is celibate very much can be great in the pulpit. It is a point within the point of the conversation.But this woman they elected is sexually active presumably as she is married to another woman. Your point is irrelevant to the thread.
He never will. So besides what God/Jesus and the apostles have changed in the new testament like our eating habits, they did not change the fact that adultery and homosexuality is a sin.
Which passages are those? I went to Bible Gateway and typed "God changed his mind" and got zero responses.What do you do with the passages where it says that God changed his mind?
The most obvious are Genesis 6:6-7 and 1 Samuel 15:11, but there are other examples. I assume you realize that "God changed his mind" isn't the only way such a statement could be worded. So doing a Bible search for it is kind of silly. If you type that phrase to Google you'll see several passages. You'll also see the conventional position that God couldn't have changed his mind, so that language was an accommodation to human understanding.Which passages are those? I went to Bible Gateway and typed "God changed his mind" and got zero responses.
When it says the Lord repents of something, it means his feelings have changes, he now sorrows over what it has become. It doesn't mean he has changed his mind. God is omniscient: he knows the future. Knowing the future, he still did what he did when he did it.The most obvious are Genesis 6:6-7 and 1 Samuel 15:11, but there are other examples. I assume you realize that "God changed his mind" isn't the only way such a statement could be worded. So doing a Bible search for it is kind of silly. If you type that phrase to Google you'll see several passages. You'll also see the conventional position that God couldn't have changed his mind, so that language was an accommodation to human understanding.
When it says the Lord repents of something, it means his feelings have changes, he now sorrows over what it has become. It doesn't mean he has changed his mind. God is omniscient: he knows the future. Knowing the future, he still did what he did when he did it.
Yes, that is correct. I believe that in the case of God repenting, is it referring to a change of his feelings, which leads to a superficial difference in action. But NOT a difference in his overall nature, or Law, or plan, or anything of importance. For example, God is not going to punish all of humanity by destroying the earth again, but he does discipline the nations, and individuals. Nor does repent imply that he has sinned and is repenting in that manner. God is the same yesterday , today, and forever.You are denying the basic meaning of the word "repent." To repent of something doesn't just mean your feelings change, it means you change direction or you didn't "repent."
Oh, I think we probably agree on this.When people say "God never changes" I believe that because it means God's nature never changes.
When people mean "God never does anything different than God did before" I don't buy that because God started with Adam and Eve, then he had the covenant with Abraham, then he offered salvation through Jesus Christ. God doesn't always do everything the same way he always did it. in fact to say otherwise would require Christians to have to become Jews first before becoming Christians. The Apostle Paul fought against this idea with the "Judaizers" in the New Testament.
Yes, that is correct. I believe that in the case of God repenting, is it referring to a change of his feelings, which leads to a superficial difference in action. But NOT a difference in his overall nature, or Law, or plan, or anything of importance. For example, God is not going to punish all of humanity by destroying the earth again, but he does discipline the nations, and individuals. Nor does repent imply that he has sinned and is repenting in that manner. God is the same yesterday , today, and forever.
Read it. Very interesting! Especially that there is contradiction. Thanks for the enlightenment.Some show him changing his mind. Some are prophets talking about it. Some are saying that God never changes his mind.
Well, I'm neither Calvinist, nor Wesleyan. I'm Catholic. I browsed some other Catholic forums and found that other Catholics similarly advocated my opinion. However, I would like to say that God is transcendant and infinite -- utterly beyond our understanding. It is very dangerous for me (or anyone) to try to nail him down into any formula. So I would like to say that the best possible scenario for my opinion is that it is only a partial truth, and at worst I am so completely off mark that Jesus is cringing. I'm just giving the best, most thoughtful answer that I can.This is where your theology is conflicting with Methodist/Wesleyan theology. The imutibility of God is more a concept out of Calvinism than out of Wesleyan/Arminian thought. We believe God does work with, through and in God's creation. God never changing the way God does things isn't part of our theology (even if it is part of yours.)