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Twisted Scripture (False Doctrines)

sdowney717

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To say that they were like sheep does not automatically mean they are sheep.
 
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sdowney717

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Jesus died for the WHOLE WORLD, but we have to become his sheep!

1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

The lie is we make ourselves sheep.
That is a human sided view and Satanic. Satan is on the side of man, not God.

We are His workmanship.
 
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sdowney717

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48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord:

and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.

Scriptures does not say and as many as chose to believe were appointed to eternal life. Appointed -- ordained.

Note that, the many, reverse the word to fit their itching ears.

Acts 13
 
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FreeGrace2

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Since Jesus' disciples had only only seen sheep used as referring to God's people, why would they suddenly understand that sheep mean all of humanity?
This is what I said and asked:
I said this:
He began His analogy with those who would steal, devour or deceive the sheep. Then He began His message about who He was going to die for.

Why anyone would think that Jesus was making a distinction between thieves, robbers, and wolves is really unusual. He clearly made the distinction between KIND of sheep.

#1 HIS sheep, who hear His voice (beleving Jews)
#2 OTHER sheep, who hear His voice (believing Gentiles)
#3 NOT of His sheep, who don't hear His voice (unbelievers)

You haven't refuted this.

The irrelevant points did no such thing. And there is that continual dodging of questions.

You offered to cite "many" passages about sheep that you think would support your view. So, it seems that you are.


His disciples surely understood that Jesus viewed humanity as "sheep without a shepherd".

And I'd really like an answer to what you think Jesus meant by that phrase.

Your view is that "all sheep" are His and He died ONLY for His sheep, so why would He reference sheep without a shepherd?


What did Jesus mean by the phrase "sheep without a shepherd"?

And your deflecting question is in error. I have given 2 passages where Jesus looked at the crowds and described them as "sheep without a shepherd".

Why would the disciples think Jesus would mean "God's people" when He described them as sheep without a shepherd?

How can "God's people" NOT have a shepherd?

Please respond to these questions. Or at least admit that you have no answer for them.
 
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FreeGrace2

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What people did He see? A local gathering, or all of humanity?
Haven't you read either passage? That would be a good start. Don't take my word for anything, as you don't anyway.

So, read the passages, and that will answer your question.

Your questions are nothing more than an obvious dodge for answering my questions.
 
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sdowney717

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Your deflecting from Heb 13:20
our Lord Jesus, that great shepherd of the sheep
We have the sure word already about 'the sheep.'

You are deflecting bringing up verses describing 'like sheep without a shepherd.

And Jesus, when He came out, saw a great multitude and was moved with compassion for them, because they were like sheep not having a shepherd. So He began to teach them many things.

Some of those in the group Jesus taught were not the sheep, not everyone believed. They are described as like sheep. Beware of those who come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly are raving wolves.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Of course, I have stopped sinning. I am not dodging the question. Why do you have to make false accusations?
If you have stopped sinning, you have made God out to be a liar, which is sin, of course.

1 John 1:8
If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.

By claiming to have "stopped sinning", you are in effect saying that you have no sin. The truth is not in you.

1 John 1:10
If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.

By claiming to have "stopped sinning", you have in effect claimed that you have not sinned (since you stopped), and you have made God out to be a liar, and His Word is not in you.

The ONLY reason John wrote v.9 is BECAUSE believers continue to SIN.

1 John 1:9
If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

1 Jn 2:1-
My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous;

His point was to sin less, not become "sinless". That's why he wrote the second sentence in v.1: "if anyone sins, we have an advocate".

It is obvious that this side of heaven, ALL believers continue to sin. Which is why we must regularly confess our sins.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Jesus died for the WHOLE WORLD, but we have to become his sheep!
No, we must become HIS sheep, by going through the "door" of Jn 10.

1 John 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Amen!! Tell that to the Calvinists.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Paul was speaking in the present tense about his past tense.
With respect, that is utterly ridiculous. There is no such thing.

If he were speaking about his past, he would have used the Greek form for past tense.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Every human has a chance to be saved, but they have to become as sheep.
No, they have to enter the sheep fold through the "door", which is faith in Christ. Then they become HIS sheep.

They have to humble themselves and repent.
Uh, no, they have to believe in Jesus Christ as their Savior.
 
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sdowney717

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No, we must become HIS sheep, by going through the "door" of Jn 10.


Amen!! Tell that to the Calvinists.

Look up what propitiation means, in 1 john 2 !


Sinners who are unforgiven have no propitiation. Are you a universalist?
 
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FreeGrace2

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To say that they were like sheep does not automatically mean they are sheep.
Jesus used figuratively language in Matt 9:36, Mark 6:34 and John 10.

That's what analogies and figurative language is for. To make comparisons.

Did you think He was being literal when He said He would die for sheep?????
 
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FreeGrace2

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FreeGrace2

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Look up what propitiation means, in 1 john 2 !
I know what it means.
hilasmos

1) an appeasing, propitiating
2) the means of appeasing, a propitiation

Sinners who are unforgiven have no propitiation. Are you a universalist?
Where do you find "forgiveness" in the Strong's definition?

Jesus Christ propitiated the Father when He paid for all the sins. He satisfied the justice of the Father by solving the sin debt of humanity.

And, no, I'm NOT a universalist.
 
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Hammster

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There's nothing about sheep without a shepherd in John 10. Trying to have this discussion with you when you just jump all around and show no consistency is proving to be quite daunting.
 
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Hammster

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Jesus was going through all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom, and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness. Seeing the people, He felt compassion for them, because they were distressed and dispirited like sheep without a shepherd. Then He said to His disciples, "The harvest is plentiful, but the workers are few. Therefore beseech the Lord of the harvest to send out workers into His harvest." (Matthew 9:35-38 NASB)

There's the passage. How are you getting all of humanity from this? And, do you know the difference between a simile and a metaphor?
 
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sdowney717

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The world experiences the wrath of God. Sins for them have no propitiation, no appeasement purchased for them by Christ because the world is not in Christ.
http://www.theopedia.com/Propitiation

The wrath of God remains upon unbelievers.

So then there is no turning away of God's wrath abiding on the world of unbelievers.

It is a strange thing to claim God's wrath has been turned away by the propitiation of Christ for unbelievers.
 
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stan1953

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Since when does it matter on a forum like this whether or not one is addressed to offer a response?

It's called context and of course it matters, especially when the response does not even address the issue.


That's a fairly long NON answer.


Jews aren't adopted and Peter was talking about Gentiles so I have no idea what you are talking about. This is what happens when you interrupt a conversation.


Who Christ died for and who produces fruit are two different things.
Christ died for ALL, and in terms of the Jews, those who don't accept Him are broken off. Whether they are grafted back in is up to them. They can believe and accept Jesus and be grafted back in or they can refuse and be destroyed by fire, like ALL unbelievers.
 
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