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Twelve "In" or "Out"?

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JMWHALEN

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To Markea(my second response)
You learn from repetion:

Paul clearly stated in Eph. 3:2 that the dispensation of the Grace of God was given to him for us! We have a new dispensation!

Paul not only receives this new dispensation of grace from the glorified Christ sitting at the right hand of God via the Holy Spirit, but he has given it to us in written form. Hence, it is Paul's writings alone that we should look to for our doctrine and help in the Christian walk.

Paul alone was chosen to be God's spokesman for this new dispensation. The other 12 Apostles knew nothing about this dispensation; they knew only what Paul taught them ,and that is why Paul said he went by revelation [direct command of the glorified Christ of heaven] to Jerusalem to confer with the 12 Apostles and to teach them what gospel he preached. Gal. 2:2 "And I went up by revelation and communicated to them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles.." If they had been preaching the same gospel, that would had not have been necessary, if we assume logical conclusions , not opinions, are attainable, and can be discussed, not dismissed.

We are to follow Paul and preach what he preached, i.e. "...the gospel of the grace of God...."(Acts 20:24, 1 Cor. 15:1-4), that is what he called his gospel in several places (Romans 16:25; Eph. 3:2,9; 2 Tim. 2:8; Romans 2:16). And then in Gal. 1:6,7,8, Paul gets to the point when he is defending his gospel, i.e. the gospel of the Grace of God , and here Paul calls his gospel , the gospel of Christ. "I marvel that you are turning away so soon from Him who called you in the grace of Christ, to a different gospel, which is not another; but there are some who trouble you and want to pervert the gospel of Christ. But even if we or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed." That is a strong statement and it seems to apply to 99.9 percent of Christendom ---those who are preaching a mixed gospel(for eg., the "TBN Circus"-preaching the gospel of the kingdom), trying to incorporate the law with grace, or those who are simply preaching the same gospel as Peter, James, and John and all of the 12 Apostles , i.e. the gospel of the kingdom. That is the gospel that was preached at hand by John the Baptist, by the 12 Apostles, by the seventy, by Jesus Himself, and by Peter at Pentecost.

Did you know Judas preached the gospel of the kingdom, and raised the dead? Do you "believe" he was "oblivious" to the reasons for the Lord Jesus Christ's death?

Looking at Acts 3:19-21 we see that Jesus prayer "Father forgive them for the know not what they do," from the cross , was answered. Peter was offering the Kingdom to that generation, to those who would be called "the little flock"(sheep=Israel), and had Israel repented and won the world to Christ, carrying out their so called "great commission", then Christ would have returned and set up the millennial kingdom, according to the promises and covenants made to their Fathers. This Acts 3 passage cannot be explained in any other way. At Pentecost, the Lord Jesus Christ was not beginning something new, He was working still through His 12 Apostles to win Israel and to allow them to win the World. But it didn't happen; they stoned Stephen , and they came under the Isaiah 6:9-10 discipline; their temple was destroyed in 70 AD and in the meantime we find that Paul was raised up right after the stoning of Stephen and made Apostle to the gentiles(Romans 11:13), with a temporary ministry to Israel. That is what we see in Acts chapters 9-28.

That is why we must pay particular attention to what Paul has to say, he is God's spokesman for this new dispensation. And further , Paul is the only writer who says, "follow me as I follow the risen Christ." Paul says, "Hold fast the pattern of sound words [doctrine] which you have heard from me" 2 Tim. 2:13; "And you became followers of us [Paul and his helpers] and of the Lord [the risen, ascended, and glorified Lord Jesus Christ of heaven] having received the word [doctrine] in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Spirit." 1 Thess. 1:6; "Therefore, brethren, stand fast and hold the traditions [doctrinal instructions] which you were taught, whether by word or our epistle." 2 Thess. 2:14. "Imitate me, just as I also imitate Christ [the risen and glorified Christ of heaven]. In other words, Paul, the only apostle appointed by the glorified Christ of heaven is OUR APOSTLE-not Peter.

Only Paul has the mystery doctrine for this new dispensation, and that is why there is so much confusion and downright error-most have and are to this hour mixing doctrines which belong to one distinct dispensation, with the doctrines of other distinct dispensations or dispensation. The result is that they come up with a mixture of prophecy and mystery, and the net result is 100 percent confusion!

Please do not back-read later revelation(the mystery) into prophecy. Paul says you will not find the Body of Christ in the OT, and in early Acts. You can deny this, but yet it is so. God's judicial blinding of Israel, a key event that set off the salvation of Saul and the revelation of the mystery, was still a humanly unknown future event when the Lord Jesus Christ was on the earth, and in early Acts, as was this present "...dispensation of the grace of God...."(Eph. 3:2), and the yet-future existence of the Body of Christ was still a secret . The Body of Christ was completely unknown, unpredicted, unexpected, and UNREVEALED until the risen, ascended, glorified Lord Jesus Christ saved Saul/Paul, who became a pattern(1 Tim. 1:16) for Body members. If the Body of Christ--the Jew/Gentile church of this age--was a secret "hid in God" since before the beginning of the world (meaning the prophets couldn't see it coming) then the secret Paul told the Thessalonians had to be something NEW. Otherwise, where's the secret If you can show me any point at which the Body of Christ was addressed or spoken of before the salvation of Saul/Paul, and this mandates that you demonstate that Jews and Gentiles were on equal footing, and ANYWHERE in the Gospels where Israel was said to be on the same level before God as Gentiles, then you will go a long way toward changing my mind-I mean that-"take your best shot."

As one preacher said, The Lord Jesus Christ "wouldn't touch a Gentile in Mt.-John with a ten foot pole!". Any Gentile had to go through Israel, hence the seemingly puzzling statement(by those who do not RIGHTLY divide) by the Lord Jesus Christ in John 4:22:

"... salvation is of the Jews."

There is no evidence that this "modus operandi" changed in early Acts-none.


You never deal with the core of our argument and the bulk of our previous posts-the distinctive ministry of Paul and the revelation of the mystery. You totally ignore it.Zip.Nada. So until you are willing to meet me on that ground, which I suspect is unfamiliar territory for you, we have nothing to discuss. Again, my "feelings won't be hurt", even though I am "quite delusional", and you can make disparaging comments on this board all you like, and believe that you are showing me the "error of my ways", and perhaps others will view my desire to "make all men see....the mystery"(Eph. 3:9) as misplaced-so be it. But my reputation in the eyes of people, whether they are saved or unsaved, is not important to the Lord. I am to show myself "...approved unto God...."(2 Tim. 2:15), and not be a "men pleaser"(Proverbs 29:25; Acts 4:19, 5:29, 24:7; 2 Cor. 4:2; Galatians 1:10; Eph. 6:6; Col. 3:22; 1 Thes. 2:4; Jn. 5:44, 12:43).

In Christ,

following Paul, which is following the Lord Jesus Christ,
and not following Peter

John M. Whalen

PS: Again, I ask: Why the heck Paul? Please inform us "delusional" "hyper-dispensationalists" for what purpose Paul was given the revelation of the mystery, if it was the same message in early Acts, and if he preached the same "the gospel" as the 12 did in early Acts?
 
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Markea

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Thanks again John for sharing your opinion on these matters.. it's always interesting.. and it certainly does appear that you are delusional.. you go on and on about how they didn't understand the purpose of Christ's death and resurrection.. BEFORE it took place...

..as if you think that I thought that they did...

You keep tryin though.. your opinions do matter..
 
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JMWHALEN

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Markea said:
AMEN ! Salvation is of the Jews..

And Christianity is not a NEW religion, it's the body of Christ.. James tells us that the prophets AGREE with this... that the LORD is taking out of the GENTILES a people for His name.. ie, Christians.

That doesn't mean that JEWS are not included... for the gospel is to the Jew FIRST.. and that's exactly what we see... it starting in Jerusalem..

When CHRIST was preached.. and JESUS declared both LORD and CHRIST.. people believed IN HIM and were saved.. God added them to the church based on their believing upon the Lord Jesus Christ.. He purified their hearts by faith..

You yourself agree that they're part of the CHURCH.. the Body of Christ..

As far as another dispensation...that's great.. that's fine.. that doesn't matter to me as much as the matter of when the church was established.. I don't agree with this other church which these folks spoke of.. and I don't believe that you do either..
__________________
A brief comment:

No, ma'am, salvation is not of the Jews in this dispensation-Jews and Gentiles are on equal footing nationally(no more "I will bless them that bless thee....", and "religiously". It was formerly.i.e., salvation was always through the Jews as the instrument, the vessel, the channel, per Genesis 12-the Abrahamic covenant.

And this explains why the Lord Jesus Christ would not "touch a Gentile with a ten foot pole" in Mt.-John. He referred to us as "dogs". Per Genesis 12, you honor Israel, and the Lord would bless you; you curse them, he will curse you. If you didn't recognize the Abrahamic Covenant of Genesis 12, the LORD God wouldn't recognize you.

And this explains the concept of a proselyte. And every single "Gentile" in early Acts, at the feast of Pentecost, a Jewish feast day(which has no doctrinal applications to the body of Christ"), was a proselyte="Keep out-no Gentiles allowed".

".. God added them to the church/I don't agree with this other church which these folks spoke of"

Once again, one "the church"(I guess at least "some" of the body of Christ is mentioned in Revelation-same one "the church") , one "the gospel" in early Acts. So, why the heck Paul?

In Christ,
John M. Whalen
 
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Markea

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John, I'll make it real simple for you..

Here are the basics of what I disagree with you folks on.. and this was the case before you shared any of your thoughts on these things..

1. I disagree with you folks in your claim that there was another entirely Jewish church, in addition to the church of God which is the Body of Christ.

2. In light of the first one.. I disagree that PAUL was the FIRST member of the body of Christ, as you folks proclaim..

3. I disagree with your claims that the church of God is NOT the Bride of Christ.. and with your claim that ISRAEL is the bride of Christ..

That's basically it John..

Surprised..?
 
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JMWHALEN

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Markea said:
Thanks again John for sharing your opinion on these matters.. it's always interesting.. and it certainly does appear that you are delusional.. you go on and on about how they didn't understand the purpose of Christ's death and resurrection.. BEFORE it took place...

..as if you think that I thought that they did...

You keep tryin though.. your opinions do matter..
___________________________________
Your own words testify that you believe they did know:"... perhaps everyone was completely oblivious to this as you seem to believe.. "

And your own words testify, using prior to the cross scriptural references, that they knew after the cross, in early Acts, that "Christ died for their sins", without citing any evidence from scripture testifying to this fact.

So, why the heck Paul, if they were all preaching 1 Cor. 15:1-4 in early Acts? And just so as to "clear the fog", what is the mystery? If the 12 all knew it, why was Paul needed? Why the heck Paul? Same "the gospel"(1 Cor. 15:1-4), same "the Church", same baptism, same "the mystery", same "the meek shall inherit the earth, not heaven"=same "Christianity: ALL IN EARLY ACTS!

"it certainly does appear that you are delusional."

Thanks "Dr. Phil"/"Oprah" for your assessment. Oh well, most thought the same of the Lord Jesus Christ(including his "family") and Paul. Eclessiastes 1:9 is fulfiled once more.

In Christ,
John M. Whalen
 
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eph3Nine

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Markea...

Uh huh. Well this is ground already covered and dealt with by SCRIPTURE here. So you dont agree. We all understand that....however, its NOT because scripture hasn't shown you differently, but because that is YOUR CHOICE.

God is ever the gentleman. He will let you continue in your "religiousity" and "traditions of men"..but your rewards will be in jeopardy as you didn't base your foundation on the words of the RISEN Christ as given to Paul.
 
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JMWHALEN

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Markea said:
John, I'll make it real simple for you..

Here are the basics of what I disagree with you folks on.. and this was the case before you shared any of your thoughts on these things..

1. I disagree with you folks in your claim that there was another entirely Jewish church, in addition to the church of God which is the Body of Christ.

2. In light of the first one.. I disagree that PAUL was the FIRST member of the body of Christ, as you folks proclaim..

3. I disagree with your claims that the church of God is NOT the Bride of Christ.. and with your claim that ISRAEL is the bride of Christ..

That's basically it John..
_______________________________________________
You just defined what most of so-called "Christianity" believes. And this is what I suspected all the while. Every divides, but not "rightly."

Well, I gotta go-TBN is coming on, and they say the same thing. I need to send in my "love gift" so as to receive my financial blessings. I need to see how to receive the baptism with the Holy Spirit so as to have the "second blessing", speak in tongues..... After all, the baptism at Pentecost was the same BY one Spirit baptism Paul spoke of! I'm needing to learn how to go about performing all those miracles and healings they did, that is ,what "the Church" did, back in early Acts. After all, it's the same "the church" we have today! What was Paul talking about?After all, TBN preaches the same "the gospel" that was preached in early Acts, and this is equivalent to Paul's "my gospel"! Perhaps I can help Benny Hinn: why does he needs a translator when he speaks in a foreign land? Does he not know that "the church" has the gift of tongues like in early Acts, where "the church" members, members of the body of Christ, were able to understand a foreign language, and speak it? Does not he know that there is just one "the church"?


Surprised..?

Nope:
"...These only are my fellowworkers unto the kingdom of God, which have been a comfort unto me." Colossians 4:11

"At my first answer no man stood with me, but all men forsook me: I pray God that it may not be laid to their charge." 2 Timothy 4:16

In Christ,
John M. Whalen
 
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Markea

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eph3Nine said:
Markea...

Uh huh. Well this is ground already covered and dealt with by SCRIPTURE here. So you dont agree. We all understand that....however, its NOT because scripture hasn't shown you differently, but because that is YOUR CHOICE.

What's ironic about your comments is that scripture does support the fact that there is ONE BODY and that we're all baptized into that ONE BODY by ONE SPIRIT.. whether Jew or Gentile.. bond or free.. etc..

AND Paul himself claims that there were others IN CHRIST before him and that he persecuted the church of God..wreaking havoc on it..etc..

AND Paul himself says that he has espoused us unto ONE HUSBAND, as a chaste virgin unto CHRIST.. and that we should love our wives as CHRIST loved the CHURCH and gave Himself for it..that a man shall leave hsi father and mother and be joined unto his wife.. as this is a great mystery concerning Christ and the church.. Paul is the one who says that we are dead to the Law through the body of Christ and that we should be married to another, even to Him who is raised from the dead..

You're the one who has to make these simple truths say something different than what they do say..

BUT.. this has been gone over before and I've derailed this thread enough.. it's supposed to be about whether or not the twelve Apostles are part of the Body of Christ or not..

So.. perhaps I'll start another thread.. ;)
 
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eph3Nine

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Markea said:
What's ironic about your comments is that scripture does support the fact that there is ONE BODY and that we're all baptized into that ONE BODY by ONE SPIRIT.. whether Jew or Gentile.. bond or free.. etc..

YES, Markea! And where do we FIND these words? NOT in Peters epistles, thats for sure.:sorry:

You will ONLY find those words and THAT information in Pauls epistles! The ONE baptism is UNIQUELY Pauls information.

AND Paul himself claims that there were others IN CHRIST before him and that he persecuted the church of God..wreaking havoc on it..etc..

Yes, there were others "in Christ" before him and he DID persecute the church of God which was ISRAEL. Those in Christ before him were JEWS, members of the little flock.

Please ...PRINT out the three threads having to do with the THREE mentions of the word "church" and put them side by side and COMPARE the differences! YOU cannot HELP but SEE them if you will but LOOK!!

AND Paul himself says that he has espoused us unto ONE HUSBAND, as a chaste virgin unto CHRIST.. and that we should love our wives as CHRIST loved the CHURCH and gave Himself for it..that a man shall leave hsi father and mother and be joined unto his wife.. as this is a great mystery concerning Christ and the church.. Paul is the one who says that we are dead to the Law through the body of Christ and that we should be married to another, even to Him who is raised from the dead..

The mystery contained in the marriage imagery is explained by Christ Himself and in your own words posted here above!

Christ and the Church being joined as ONE was the mystery...the Body of Christ is being spoken of here...something NEVER mentioned by Peter and the boys because it wasnt even in existance UNTIL PAULS revelation of the MYSTERY truths given FOR us.

Our UNION has already taken PLACE...Israels UNION is awaiting fulfillment at at future time. Gods goal is to bring all things unto Himself.
 
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JMWHALEN

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Markea wrote:

" I disagree with your claims that the church of God is NOT the Bride of Christ.. and with your claim that ISRAEL is the bride of Christ.."


"AND Paul himself says that he has espoused us unto ONE HUSBAND, as a chaste virgin unto CHRIST.. and that we should love our wives as CHRIST loved the CHURCH and gave Himself for it..that a man shall leave hsi father and mother and be joined unto his wife.. as this is a great mystery concerning Christ and the church.. Paul is the one who says that we are dead to the Law through the body of Christ and that we should be married to another, even to Him who is raised from the dead.. "
______________________________________________________________________________________________________

(As you know, or should know, biblically, mystery refers to that which was previously unknown, which was kept secret, but is now revealed. It does not mean/reflect our "modern society'' defintion of "something spooky" that we cannot understand. The term refers to a previously hidden truth unveiled by God's revelation. It does not mean you cannot find out about it, it does not mean you cannot know about it, and it does not mean your cannot understand it.)

2 Cor. 11:2

Many believe this makes the body the Lord Jesus Christ's wife. It does not. The word "virgin" here is masculine, not feminine. A man can be a virgin(1 Cor. 7, Revelation 14). And the term "husband" can also mean "man". When the Corinthian saints(the most carnal bunch of believers "in Christ") were saved under Paul's ministry, they became "joined"/united to Christ as part/members of the body of Christ. And, as Eph. 2:15 states, the body of Christ is referred to as a "new man", which is consistent with the masculine word used for "virgin" in 2 Cor. 11:2. No where in this passage is the body taught to be a "bride", unless you can find it in a masculine bride instead of a feminine bride(in today's "enlightened" society, maybe so!).

The context of this passage is warning about corruption and deception in doctrinal matters being taught to the body, and not a statement teaching that the body of Christ is "the Lamb's wife" It is linked to Eve due to her deception(1 Tim. 2:14).


In Ephesian 5, Paul uses a figure of speech, a metaphor, the role of the husband and the wife, which have been ordained by God, to draw a great spiritual parallel concerning the Lord Jesus Christ and the church in this dispensation, the body of Christ. As a metaphor, the body of Christ is described as members, and we are also described as "the temple of the living God". How many of us are a building? Not one of us. We are to understand that terminology to be a figure of speech describing the relationship we have with the Lord Jesus Christ.

The context of Eph. 5 is the authority of a man over the woman, and the love of a man for a woman, which is and should be comparable to the love a man has for "his own body". She is not him, but she should love her, as he loves himself.

Notice that the wife stands in contrast to the man's body, of his flesh, and of his bones. This brings us to the mystery as revealed by Paul in this chapter. Notice again that the body is the man's flesh, not the wife. It is the church(a mystery not revealed until given to Paul by revelation) of which we are members-Eph. 5:29-30.

The mystery: Eph. 5:31-32 The man in the passage is the Lord Jesus Christ as head and his body. It will be joined unto his wife.

I will leave alone a lengthy discussion of who the wife/bride is. However, the wife may be the Israel of God who was betrothed at his first coming(Gal. 6, Mt. 9). This Israel does not seem to be the "restored" adulterous wife(Jer. 3, Hoseea 2), since the wife has to be a virgin. And notice that the high priest of Israel(Hebrews 3-4-written to Hebrews during the Tribulation, not the body of Christ) is to marry only a virgin of his own people. And do not mistake this with 2 Cor. 11:1,2. Many "think" this makes the body of Christ his wife. It does not. A man can be a virgin(1 Cor. 7, Rev. 14). Again, the 2 Cor. passages are dealing with the conduct and behaviour of the local Corinthian church(the most "carnal" believers), rather than the title of the Lord Jesus Christ and his body. This statement is a warning as to corruption and deception in doctrinal matters being taught to the body of Christ, not a statement teaching that the body of Christ is "the Bride of Christ" or the Lamb's wife(Rev.). It is linked to Eve due to her deception(1 Tim. 2:14).

Another illustration concerning a woman is given in Romans 7, where the body of Christ is likened to a woman who is divorced. No virgin here, but we are married to the Lord. This is in teaching the spiritual truth of our death to sin and the law, only possible through the mystery of the body of Christ.. The reason why the term "married" is used in verse 4, is because of what is being conveyed/taught in verses 2 and 3, respectively, i.e., that the married woman is "bound" to her husband as long as she lives(an analogy/figure of speech to convey a spiritual truth). The term "married" here, in verse 4, within the context of the analogy provided, means "become, appear, finished", emphasizing the spiritual truth of believers "becoming"one with our risen, ascended, and glorified Saviour(we are united-what He has, we have). Are past history "in Adam" is now severed since we have "become"[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif] one/united with our Lord, and this is how we can produce good works(our walk of service/sanctification) for God the Father, through the appropriation of this mystery, the realization of what we were formerly, under the bondage of the law, and who we now are, "in Christ", serving "in the newness of spirit"(verse 6) And this is truly a mystery, this is part of the revelation of the mystery revealed to Paul! Only in the mystery revealed to Paul is it stated that the body of Christ has members(1 Cor. 12, Romans 12). Marriage is not in view here. As you know, when you were saved, you were already made part of/made a member of, the body of Christ when the Holy Spirit(the baptizer here) united you with the Lord Jesus Christ, and with other members(such as Eph3Nine, Dispy......!) So, there is absolutely no reason to be "joined" or "married again-it was already done![/font]

[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]Back to Ephesians 5:23-32[/font]
[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]These passages compare the relationship between husband and wife to the relationship between the Lord Jesus Christ and the church. It sums up by saying: [/font]​

[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]"This mystery is great; but I am speaking with reference to Christ and the church." 5:32[/font]

[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]The "mystery" in these verses is said to be the fact of our total identification with Christ, so that we have become "members of His body" (vs. 30). In support of this Paul quotes Genesis 2:24, [/font]

[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]"For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and the two shall become one flesh ". This mystery is great; but I am speaking with reference to Christ and the
church. (vss. 31-32)
[/font]

[font=Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]It is not the husband-wife relationship itself which is the "mystery" of which he here speaks, but the joining together of the two into "one flesh." Marriage beautifully illustrates this relationship as the husband and wife come to have a common bond of love and purpose, with the wife in loving subjection to her husband, and the husband lovingly protecting and guiding his wife, and providing for her needs. However, the mystery is not that the church has become the "bride" or "wife" of Christ (which designation the Scripture applies to Israel only), but that the church is the very body of Christ --we are "one flesh" with our glorious Lord. What we have in this beautuful part of scripture is the teaching of what husbands and wives have as their greatest example and pattern, the relationship that the Lord Jesus Christ and the church, which is his body together. [/font]


Again, Eph. 5:31-32 never states that the Lord Jesu Christ is a bridegroom or husband to the body of Christ, but uses the unity of the body to emphasize, allegorize, the perfect relationship that should exist between a husband and wife. Neither passage confirms or identifies the identity of the Lord Jesus Christ as the bridegroom(the Lamb) referred to in Rev. 19:7.

Believers in this dispensation are members in one body , the body of Christ, members of one another(Romans 12:4, 5; 1 Cor. 12:12,20,27; Eph. 4:25),and "..members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones...."(Eph. 5:30) The Lord Jesus Christ is not married to "...the church, Which is his body...."(Eph. 1:22,23), in this dispensation-He would be marrying himself.

Any bride is female. The body of Christ is never refered to as female, but is called one new man(Eph. 2:15), but never as a wife, and never as a bride(the term "the bride of Christ" does not even appear in the Holy Bible). The body of Christ is referred to as "his body", as "his own flesh", and as "himself". The term "bride" is a "non-Pauline" term. Paul never mentions it as being the body or the church. He does "analogizes" that a man is to love his wife, as Christ loved the church; but the church, in the context of the passage, and in the passage, is never said to be his wife. Again, the church is likened unto the body of the man, not the wife. You find bride in the OT/NT, but this is always a reference to Israel. wife


Again, the body of Christ is a man; if you are married you are not a bride; the Lord Jesus Christ is not going to "marry" his own body.

Learn to rightly divide this Holy Bible, and stop looking for the body of Christ in the OT, early/mid Acts, and Hebrews-Revelation. You will only find it in Romans through Philemon. Learn the difference between things spoken by the mouth of all the holy prophets since the world began, and that which was kept secret since the world began. Only then can you be established(Romans 16:25) in your faith by learning the revelation of the mystery, which the LORD God would have you KNOW(Eph. 3:9).

In Christ,
John M. Whalen

PS: Understand why Paul uses the term "body", instead of "just church".
 
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Markea said:
Now you're reaching for straws... I understand that ALL Israel will be saved and that they shall look upon the One whom they have pierced and mourn for Him in that DAY... as for right now.. THEY (the nation) are still blinded in part as the fulness of the Gentiles has not come in.. yet..



Again, you're reaching.. ISRAEL has been set aside.. their house is left desolate.. and the GOSPEL is going out.. although the LORD will save ISRAEL and they will be the head of the nations again in the future.. for the times of the Gentiles will come to a close eventually..



Keep reachin there eph.. you ultra dispensationalists are the ones in error with your self proclaimed rightly dividing attitude.. What I hinder is YOUR ULTRA DISPENSATIONAL program.. and gladly so..

The understanding that God expects us to get from his word will not come until you study His Word rightly divided. Most people don't even understand what salvation really is, no way then can you understand the distinction between what Peter taught and what Paul taught. If Paul taught the same thing Peter did why did he have to lay another foundation? Here is an interesting verse:

Romans 15:20 Yea, so have I strived to preach the gospel, not where Christ was named, lest I should build upon another man's foundation:Romans 15:21 But as it is written, To whom he was not spoken of, they shall see: and they that have not heard shall understand.

Christians not only don't understand what Salvation really is but also don't know what a gospel is, or what a dispensation is.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Scripture is supposed to be profitable, without studying God's word rightly divided you miss what God wants us to know. Why is it that God told Paul to tell us to separate truth from truth and not the prophets, Peter or even Christ himself. Before Paul all the truth belonged to other dispensations and the information received by Paul was new and had been hid in God until given to Paul.

Ephesians 3:1 For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:Ephesians 3:3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,Ephesians 3:4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)

No one knew this before Paul, so there was noway that Peter preached what Paul did because it was hidden From Peter until it was given to Paul. This is why God tells us to separate truth from truth. All scripture is for us but not all scripture is to us.Our discussions and understanding is profitless without following God's instructions.

2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

God wants us to know what He is doing today, but we must separate the present from the past. Not only is Israel set aside today but their program for salvation has also been placed in abeyance until the present program for salvation ends.

Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then it is no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.

Where is the grace in Acts 2:38?

CompleteinChrist:preach:
 
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JerryShugart

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CompleteinChrist said:
Where is the grace in Acts 2:38?
CompleteinChrist,

The Jews who believed what Peter preached on the day of Pentecost were saved by grace.

The rite of "water baptism" went hand and hand with the preaching of the "gospel of the kingdom". On the day of Pentecost Peter used the facts of the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ to prove to the Jews that He is their promised Messiah.He summed up his argument by saying:


"Therefore,let all the house of Israel know assuredly,that God hath made that same Jesus,Whom ye have crucified,both Lord and Christ"(Acts2:36).


Those "who gladly received his word"(Acts2:41) were "born of God" the moment that they believed that gospel:


"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God…For whoever is born of God overcometh the world,and this is the victory that overcometh the world,even our faith.Who is he that overcometh the world,but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God"(1Jn.5:1,4,5)


Before a drop of water even touched the believers they were already "children of God"(Jn.1:12;Ro.8:16,17) and "fellow citizens of the household of God"(Eph.2:19).

The Jews and Gentiles were both saved by "grace" as witnessed by the words of Peter:

"But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are"(Acts15:11).

In His grace,--Jerry
 
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eph3Nine

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JerryShugart said:
CompleteinChrist,

The Jews who believed what Peter preached on the day of Pentecost were saved by grace.

The rite of "water baptism" went hand and hand with the preaching of the "gospel of the kingdom". On the day of Pentecost Peter used the facts of the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ to prove to the Jews that He is their promised Messiah.He summed up his argument by saying:


"Therefore,let all the house of Israel know assuredly,that God hath made that same Jesus,Whom ye have crucified,both Lord and Christ"(Acts2:36).


Those "who gladly received his word"(Acts2:41) were "born of God" the moment that they believed that gospel:


"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God…For whoever is born of God overcometh the world,and this is the victory that overcometh the world,even our faith.Who is he that overcometh the world,but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God"(1Jn.5:1,4,5)


Before a drop of water even touched the believers they were already "children of God"(Jn.1:12;Ro.8:16,17) and "fellow citizens of the household of God"(Eph.2:19).

The Jews and Gentiles were both saved by "grace" as witnessed by the words of Peter:

"But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are"(Acts15:11).

In His grace,--Jerry

Grace has always been manifested by God in every dispensation. However, the DISPENSATION of GRACE was only given to Paul. There is a difference, right?:)
 
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JerryShugart

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eph3Nine said:
Grace has always been manifested by God in every dispensation. However, the DISPENSATION of GRACE was only given to Paul. There is a difference, right?:)
Yes,the words "dispensation of grace" are in regard to the stewardship of preaching the gospel of grace.

It was not until Paul was converted that it was revealed that the sinner in every age is saved by grace through faith and it is made possible by the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

In His grace,--Jerry
 
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eph3Nine

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JerryShugart said:
Yes,the words "dispensation of grace" are in regard to the stewardship of preaching the gospel of grace.

It was not until Paul was converted that it was revealed that the sinner in every age is saved by grace through faith and it is made possible by the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

In His grace,--Jerry

And the difference between the programs would be what they were told to place their faith IN, is that correct?

The Jew in times PAST as well as in ages to COME was to "demonstrate" their faith by repenting and water baptism, however in this present program is the only place where we can say that salvation comes by grace alone thru faith alone in the finished work of Christ alone. Is this right?
 
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JerryShugart

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eph3Nine said:
And the difference between the programs would be what they were told to place their faith IN, is that correct?
That is correct.In the past dispensation the Jews were to believe that it is Jesus Who is the Christ,the Son of God.When they believed that they were born of God.

Those in the past those who "believed God",no matter what revelation from God they had received at that time,were saved.

"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness"(Ro.4:3).
The Jew in times PAST as well as in ages to COME was to "demonstrate" their faith by repenting and water baptism, however in this present program is the only place where we can say that salvation comes by grace alone thru faith alone in the finished work of Christ alone. Is this right?
No,salvation has always been by grace through faith and made possible by the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

Today we are to demonstrate our faith also.We are to keep ourselves "holy",and that is our reasonable service (Ro.12:1).

In His grace,--Jerry
 
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eph3Nine

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JerryShugart said:
That is correct.In the past dispensation the Jews were to believe that it is Jesus Who is the Christ,the Son of God.When they believed that they were born of God.

Those in the past those who "believed God",no matter what revelation from God they had received at that time,were saved.

"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness"(Ro.4:3).

No,salvation has always been by grace through faith and made possible by the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

Today we are to demonstrate our faith also.We are to keep ourselves "holy",and that is our reasonable service (Ro.12:1).

In His grace,--Jerry


Hmmmmm, I would have to disagree with ya there. Salvation was faith PLUS demonstration (works) for Peter and the boys. Leviticus 26 shows the LAW program that Israel WANTED instead of being dealt with in GRACE...and she THOT she could DO IT. The OT saints knew NOTHING about what the death of Christ would accomplish.

Today we dont demonstrate our faith by anything. God did it ALL..the only reasonable response is to either Believe it or NOT.

We dont KEEP OURSELVES holy!!!! NO NO NO. WE ARE made holy by virtue of being IN the HOLY ONE. OUR only claim to fame in the righteousness department is that OURS is "imputed"...we cannot IMPROVE on what God has given us. "We have been MADE the righteousness of GOD in HIM"

God saves us and keeps us...totally by His grace. If we have to DO anything to improve on what HE has already DONE...then we have fallen from grace and gone back into WORKS, and have made the Cross of none effect.

Just some things to think about.:)
 
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biblebeliever123

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JerryShugart said:
That is correct.In the past dispensation the Jews were to believe that it is Jesus Who is the Christ,the Son of God.When they believed that they were born of God.

Those in the past those who "believed God",no matter what revelation from God they had received at that time,were saved.

"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness"(Ro.4:3).

No,salvation has always been by grace through faith and made possible by the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

Today we are to demonstrate our faith also.We are to keep ourselves "holy",and that is our reasonable service (Ro.12:1).

In His grace,--Jerry

Salvation has always been by grace through faith, but in time past they did show 'works' in demonstration of their faith. Cain and Abel both brought 'sacrifices'...but Cain didn't believe God (faith) and did not bring what he was required to bring. Abel did believe and brought the sacrifice that showed that faith. In past dispensations God was looking at the cross, but the people only knew that they were to believe what God required of them and works of righteousness were part of their instructions.
It isn't until we get to Paul's epistles that we see that it is faith apart from any works of righteousness.

Romans 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

Romans 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
(God was looking at the crosswork when those in time past were demonstrating their faith with works...He could forgive them based on the crosswork...to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past..that's just not about our past sins, but the sins of those living before the cross.)

But now....God wants NO WORKS...it's faith alone in what He accomplished already for us.
Romans 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
To him that WORKETH NOT, BUT BELIEVETH....

Titus 3:5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
Contrast Romans 4:5 and Titus 3:5 (above) with

Acts 10:35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.

We see the difference.... NOT by works of righteousness..... and WORKETH righteousness.


As far as demonstrating our faith....that would fall under service. God has already made us holy, separated unto himself. We are now able as believers to yield our members as instruments of righteousness and walk in those good works that he before ordained that we SHOULD walk in them...but it's not required for our salvation or to keep our salvation. We didn't save ourselves and we can't keep ourselves saved...it's all HIS WORK.
Ephesians 1:13 In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise,

Ephesians 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:Ephesians 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast. (((((again note: NOT by works)))))

Ephesians 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.((note: SHOULD walk in them)))


First you are HIS WORKMANSHIP......then after salvation you are now able to be HIS WORKMAN.
 
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JerryShugart

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eph3Nine said:
Hmmmmm, I would have to disagree with ya there. Salvation was faith PLUS demonstration (works) for Peter and the boys.
If salvation was by faith plus works then why did Peter say the following?:

""But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the same way as they also are"(Acts15:11).

Paul makes it plain that the believing "remnant" out of the nation of Israel were saved by grace apart from works:

"Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace. And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace"(Ro.11:5,6).

Earlier in the same epistle Paul addresses those who were saved before the law,those who were saved while being under the law,and those who had not the law (the Gentiles).

And he makes it plain that all azre saved "apart from works":

"For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness apart from works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin. Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also?"(Ro.4:3-9).
Leviticus 26 shows the LAW program that Israel WANTED instead of being dealt with in GRACE...and she THOT she could DO IT. The OT saints knew NOTHING about what the death of Christ would accomplish.
You are right.The OT saints knew nothing about what the death of Christ would accomplish.And those who did not believe that He is the Christ,the Son of God were not "born of God".
We dont KEEP OURSELVES holy!!!! NO NO NO. WE ARE made holy by virtue of being IN the HOLY ONE.
Yes,in our "standing" before the Lord we are created in holiness.

But in our "walk" we are to present our bodies a living sacrifice,holy,because that is our reasonable service (Ro.12:1).

I debated this subject on THeologyOnLine.The question debated was if works were ever required for salvation.If you would like to read the debate you can go to the following site:

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?t=13451&page=1

In His grace,--Jerry
 
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