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Reference?Christianity claims that there is an official canon going back to the first century
Jesus being son of God is also ambiguous. Jesus always held the father as his God and prayed to him and did miracles through God not by himself. Jesus is neither son of God nor God!I find it interesting that Protestants never understood that the concept of the Trinity as a doctrine had no basis in the New Testament at all and did not reject it. Even Catholicism admit it isn't sourced in the NT. Maybe on this point the Oneness groups and Jehovah's Witnesses have a point.
This would also make sense if the whole religion only emerged under the new Constantinian regime of the 4th century, and therefore Christians used it if Christianity did not exist before then.
"The formulation 'one God in three Persons' was not solidly established, certainly not fully assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, prior to the end of the 4th century. But it is precisely this formulation that has first claim to the title the Trinitarian dogma. Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective." - The New Catholic Encyclopedia, Vol. XIV, p. 299, (1967)
You said:What is a one word question? I always thought that Christians believed the NT was a collection of divinely inspired holy scriptures. But no one can tell me who before the Councils of the 4th century determined that they were a canon as in the alleged words of Iraeneus of Lyon.
My response of "Reference?" means I want you to cite a reference where "Christianity claims there is an official canon going back to the first century." "I always thought" is not a reference. Whether or not they are divinely inspired has nothing to do with that.Christianity claims that there is an official canon going back to the first century
Sure, cuz you say so.The scriptural allusions to a "trinity" are not what people think. They simply meant that Jesus was a divinely sent "son" of God in heaven and inspired with the holy spirit. This is not a trinity, which was used to appeal to pagan comfort with the idea of a divine human being.
No, that doesn't follow at all. A pagan converting doesn't imply in the slightest that the Trinity was designed to "appeal to pagans".Well, I think it makes perfect sense since the pagans did not remain pagan did they?
That has absolutely nothing to do with what you said in post #141.And.....the fact is that the only people who could prepare a canon and write anything were the monk scribes under a supervising authority to ensure accuracy. WHAT and WHO was that body before the 4th century that did that? The answer is that there was no such body
Then try using the reply feature. It's not that difficult.I was addressing another question.
The atonement did apply to those whom God considered otherwise righteous in the era before the coming of the Savior. According to the historic belief, they had not been allowed to go to heaven until Christs sacrifice.The Word became Flesh, but no one can explain WHY this allegedly happened, or why the Word becoming flesh was stated only in the Gospel of John and not in the synoptic gospels. No explanation anywhere of how people achieved the benefits of the atonement and resurrection for several thousand years before the "word became flesh." Or why the Word becoming Flesh constituted the same thing as atonement for sin of everyone alive from the day of the resurrection onward - even for the hundreds of years until large numbers of human beings even knew about it.
The atonement did apply to those whom God considered otherwise righteous in the era before the coming of the Savior. According to the historic belief, they had not been allowed to go to heaven until Christs sacrifice.
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