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yes
yes, ours is longer and historically the one Christ used, and most importantly, we have the proper context.
You wouldn't happen to have books considered apocryphal in the Orthodox book, like Enoch, Jasper and/or the Archon and Principalities books?
And, why is it longer (in other words, what is meritorious about those extra canonical books in EO?)
no, not those, but others like Maccabees, Wisdom of Solomon, Psalm 151, etc are all in ours. Protestants generally consider them Apocryphal because of Martin Luther and Zwingli making historical boo boos
well, what is meritorious is that those are the books that were read by Christ and the Apostles.
actually, Genesis never mentions anything about relations and childbearing prior to the Fall, aside that there was an increase in pain in a woman's childbearing. so we know they were to proceed, how they proceeded was what changed because our condition changed from an unfallen state to a fallen one.
What does it take to be legitimately recognized as part of the EO denomination?
How do you imagine that they proceeded to propagate the species?
for the OT, it was what was used by Christ, no more and no less.virginally since they were in an unfallen state. no idea how that works since we all live post Fall
As I understand it, the Western Church looks at sin as being transmitted from Adam by the act of sexual intercourse (yes? no?). I believe somewhere I read that Augustine was the one who really got this ball rolling.
It led to the concept of "Original Sin" (yes? no?)
In that context, it is understandable that the Theotokos had to be Immaculately Conceived. Have to break that line of Original Sin.
So how does the Orthodox faith view the sin of Adam as affecting the cosmos and how do they see it being transmitted to the rest of the human race? Something is deeply wrong with us. Orthodoxy looks at it as disease, and sees the Eucharist as "the medicine of immortality."
So how does Orthodoxy see the disease being transmitted?
Links to articles appreciated!
So you imagine that Eve would have congress prior to the Fall without ever losing her hymen and that Adam would view each copulation as his first time because he would automatically be forced to forget his last conjugation because otherwise they would be both physically and spiritually tainted?
That is quite an acrobatic accomplishment!
um, no. I don't imagine anything since there is no record of how humans would have been fruitful in an unfallen state, and it would not have tainted them.
and that's quite an immature comment!
or that they grew sdexual organs after sinning
There is Nothing in the biblical account that indicates that having sex prior to the fall would have tainted them. Where do you derive this concept from?
It tells us that they were made male and female. That means that she was physically female and he was physically male. They were given the command to procreate PRIOR to the fall.
Where do you derive the idea that they had no sexual organs or that sexual organs were omitted even though they were classified as male and female? It just doesn't add up.
If indeed sex is inherently sinful, then marriage is inherently sinful.
Yet God uses marriage to illustrate the relationship between himself and Israel and between his Son and the Christian church.
all I know is that how we have sex now is not how it was in the Garden.
Yeah, I googled it and I'm pretty sure you are right *rotfl*
He's expressing the Orthodox position, not babbling a conjecture.Petros, now, people don't mock people's beliefs, if that's his peace so be it. Consummation in the Eden was something like a shrine.
God be with you!I'm off guys!!!
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