That is correct, I'm aware of this.
That's incorrect. That is why I used that one particular section of scripture to point this out,...
This word "other" also means different or diverse.
It wasn't just one tongue they were speaking, they were speaking many, hence why we can't say they were speaking a prayer language.
I seen The Lord do this at times.
I understand what you are saying here, but,..... all of us must be sound in our biblical approach, so we can't make assumptions on the text if it does not say that specifically.
Dave . . . Greek is a precise language.
The Greek is clear. One individual heard the entire group at the same time that another heard the whole group.
Here (these following quotes are from other threads):
1.
The Greek is clear that each man/one (singular
eiV or one [here rendered as "man" in the KJV]) heard THEM ALL (plural ekastoV a compound of the singular meaning more than one) speaking in there NATIVE (idia "one's own") language.
Greek is a very precise language as far as meaning within linguistic construction goes. It seems clear that the Cretans heard ALL OF THEM in Cretan, the Parthians heard ALL OF THEM in Parthian, Cappadocians in Cappadocian, et. al. AT THE SAME MOMENT. This would leave us with the conclusion that the miracle was not so much that they were speaking in tongues (although that was miraculous too) but that all these guys heard all those speaking in tongues AS A GROUP in their language AT THE SAME TIME as the others who were listening. Look at the other's response too . . . not one of awe but one of mockery. They didn't hear the languages . . . but rather they heard something that caused them to think that the ones speaking were DRUNK.
2.
Here is the problem that needs to be surmounted in order for a case for tongues being literal known human languages in Acts:
1) The Greek doesn't allow for a concept of a one-to-one ratio of hearing and speaking. Rather the Greek supports a one hearing all speaking.
2) The common Koine usage of "glossolalia lailien" in connection with ecstatic tongue speaking in the common world. The phrase "speaking in tongues" (in this literary form) becomes a buzz phrase, something along the lines of the contemporary usage of "pro-life," hence carrying with its usage a whole plethora of meaning that may not be known without a perusal of ancient Koine usage.
3) Luke's distinction between "glosson" (tongue) and dialektos (dialect). The disciples spoke in "tongues" but those who heard did not hear "glosson" but rather "dialektos." Luke's usage is illuminating to his meaning.
4) The purpose of the "languages" in Acts 2 is NOT common throughout the Acts' passages. The purpose of "languages" is only in Acts 2.
5) If one assumes that the "tongues" presented in Acts 2 is the same "tongues" that Paul speaks about in 1st Corn. 12-14, the context of 1st Cor. 14 is clear that the tongues in view (regardless of function or usage) is indeed ecstatic, thereby rendering the tongues of Acts 2 ecstatic as well.
These are the issues that must be answered if one desires to make the tongues of Acts 2 known foreign languages.