How does that relate to saying John 6:4 does not belong in our Bibles? Or are you suggesting that pascha could be translated Trumpets?
How does this relate to our discussion? Try and be more precise so we don't have to go back and forth clarifying what we mean. Is this post related to John 6:4 or Daniel 9 or what?
The Gospel narratives clearly show us that Yeshua did not go up to Jerusalem for the "passover”. Instead of keeping a Feast in Jerusalem, Yeshua assembled thousands of Israelites on a hillside in the Galilee and fed them with leavened barley loaves (John 6:9), which would have been a blatant violation of Torah if this were truly the time of Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Two days later, Yeshua taught another large assembly in the Capernaum synagogue who also did not go up to “passover” in Jerusalem. Instead of delivering a message relevant to Passover on that Sabbath, he taught them about the prophetic significance of the Day of Trumpets (John 6:28-59). By the next chapter, Yeshua has began his journey to Jerusalem for the Feast of Tabernacles, which occurs exactly six months before or after Passover (John 7:2-10). It doesn't take that long [six months] to get to Jerusalem even with walking at a slow pace.
John 6:4 says Passover was "near". How near we are not told. Was it days or weeks away? It seems to me he had time enough to finish in Capernaum and return for the feast. What he taught in John 6:28-59 concerning him being the (unleavened) bread from heaven is far more relevant to Passover/Unleavened Bread than Trumpets. As for the time in between that and Sukkot, we are told John did not write about many things Yeshua did.
If this was true, then we would have texts with the "notes" in the margin. If we don't have such texts, we cannot assume that was the case and delete what was written.
That is irrelevant seeing how neither Mark nor Luke ever mention any specific feasts except Passover/Unleavened when Yeshua died.
Gives context to time frame of John 6:4.
In a short period of time [eight days], the "tabernacle with Moses and Elias" happened.
Here Peter is thinking in relationship to the Feast of Tabernacles.
Now Yeshua starts preparing the minds of the disciples regarding His death.
Luke does go on from the feeding of the multitude to the transfiguration [Peter thinks Sukkot] and Yeshua then goes on to talk about His death. Sequence fits better with Tabernacle - Passover.
The mere mention of building three tabernacles in a vision does not mean the Feast of Tabernacles was upon them. Neither does the mention of a trumpet in Matthew 6:2 mean it was Yom Teruah or the mention of fasting in Matthew 6:16 mean it was Yom Kippurim.
If you were Peter witnessing the transfiguration, what connection would you make if it was Passover time?
Peter was seeing a vision for a very brief time before he asked to make tabernacles. He knew nothing about the purpose of the vision at that point. All he saw was Yeshua whose "face did shine as the sun, and his raiment was white as the light." Then he saw Moses and Eliyah. It could very well be that his first thought was to shade them from the bright light. Tabernacles were made throughout the year for shelter from the elements, especially the sun's heat.
Could be, after all he was just a dumb fisherman who didn't understand what was happening and the first thing out of his mouth was the only thing he could think of. Strange that it was tabernacles, being a Jew and all.
If you are going to resort to mocking, we might as well end this discussion.
Quit presenting Peter as misguided in thinking Tabernacles in the wrong season. I don't think Peter is stupid nor misguided in his thinking. I think there is a good reason for him to think of the Sukkot. 'about eight days' of Luke could be another clue lending itself to the Feast of Tabernacles and the Eighth day.
You are so concerned about the gap in time from Passover in John 6:4 to Sukkot in John 7:2 that you are willing to declare John 6:4 a forgery without textual evidence to do so. What about the gap in time from the Feast of Dedication in John 10 to Passover in John 12:1? Three-four months worth of activity and all we have to show for it is about a weeks worth of time in John 11. What about the gap in time between John 1:14 and John 1:29 (about 30 years?)?
Agreed. Yeshua was not disobedient to the law of assembly in Jerusalem for one of the three mandatory feasts.
You are certainly not going to convince me of your view when you present conflicting data. The "Duration" article you linked to opens by saying, "The Duration of Christ's ministry was 434 days, just like Daniel says." Yet, in post #53 you gave me a link to http://www.creationtoeternity.com/page12.html which shows the ministry being "490 days". In the "Duration" article, he says John 6:4 refers to the second Passover, but in the other article it says, “And the Passover, the feast of the Jews was nigh. Here again the translators got it wrong! This is not His third Passover but the first of the special days leading up to the Feast of Tabernacles which was due in 2 weeks time. This is referring to the Blowing of Trumpets on the 1st day of the 7th Hebrew month ..."
