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One covenant covers one group, but not another. Under the Noahide Covenant, it covered everyone. Under the Mosaic Law, it covered only the Children of Israel and excluded Gentiles completely. Under the New Covenant, now that the law had served its purpose and was now discarded, the Gentiles had all of the benefits of the law plus personal holiness (which the Mosaic Law NEVER provided.)
According to Paul you are absolutely wrong! Is not Paul saying that Gentles are Jews and are keeping the Ten Commandments?One covenant covers one group, but not another. Under the Noahide Covenant, it covered everyone. Under the Mosaic Law, it covered only the Children of Israel and excluded Gentiles completely. Under the New Covenant, now that the law had served its purpose and was now discarded, the Gentiles had all of the benefits of the law plus personal holiness (which the Mosaic Law NEVER provided.)
What is the difference between the new and the old. Does Jeremiah or Hebrews say that it is the removal of the law?But Paul was a new cov minister as he ministered mostly to gentiles, the old cov, I have shown in prior posts was given to israel.. Paul did not preach the old cov to either party. See Acts 14, same gospel of grace, as they, Jew and Greek were being saved by in Iconium, as Jesus bore witness to the word of His grace, not the old cov.
The Abrahmic gospel of gal 3:8, a Gen 12:3 reference, said "all the families" of the earth, all...that would be gentiles.
Abraham was used to ward off the old cov teachers.
Why did He change it?God didn't change. God changed the covenants. The covenants aren't God.
According to Paul you are absolutely wrong! Is not Paul saying that Gentles are Jews and are keeping the Ten Commandments?
Romans 2
20 An instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law.
21 Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege?
23 Thou that makest thy boast of the law, through breaking the law dishonourest thou God?
24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written.
25 For circumcision verily profiteth, if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision.
26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law?
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Romans 2 from verse 20 Romans 4: 13-17 Gal. 3:28-29.Then the Gentile can never possess salvation.
Question for you - Is there anything in Acts showing Gentiles became Jews to possess salvation? I'll even accept anything else you can show in the New Testament showing Gentiles became as Jews to possess salvation.
The God you know may change His mind but the perfect God of the bible does not.He changed his mind, what is so hard about that?
What is your point here?Ex 23:7 Keep far from a false charge, and do not kill the innocent and righteous, for I will not acquit the wicked.
Rom 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Please explain this text here.
According to Paul you are absolutely wrong! Is not Paul saying that Gentles are Jews and are keeping the Ten Commandments?
Romans 2
20 An instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law.
21 Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege?
23 Thou that makest thy boast of the law, through breaking the law dishonourest thou God?
24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written.
25 For circumcision verily profiteth, if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision. 26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law?
28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
No.According to Paul you are absolutely wrong! Is not Paul saying that Gentles are Jews and are keeping the Ten Commandments?
And yet you choose to hinder His covenant of promise dating 430 years before the Ten Commandments existed.The God you know may change His mind but the perfect God of the bible does not.
God didn't change. God changed the covenants. The covenants aren't God.
You aren't learning anything, are you?Why did He change it?
You quoted Jeremiah 31:32 in your OP, but obviously didn't take the time to read it.
I'm with VictorC here. You come up real short and wanting.Romans 2 from verse 20 Romans 4: 13-17 Gal. 3:28-29.
27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law?No he is not! he is using that chapter to show how no one kept the law, they are all about to be judged in 3:19-20, because the law shows the knowledge of sin, and that is that!
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