Honestly if Matthew did not say what it dose I would have no problem accepting a toned down version of Marian veneration.
Well, let's revisit this.
Now, does Matthew’s use of "until" mean what you say it does? Not necessarily. The Greek word for "until" (heos) does not imply that Mary had marital relations after the birth of Christ. In 2 Samuel 6:23, we read that Michal, the daughter of Saul, had no child "until" the day of her death. Does that mean she had children
after she died? Hardly. So why does 'until' in Matthew mean that after the birth of Jesus there was physical congress?
Hebrews 1:13 and 1 Timothy 4:13 are other places where 'until' cannot mean what you think it means.
What is St. Matthew’s intent? Why do you interpret it was trying to here is not to explain what happened after the birth of Christ? He is writing about the period before the birth and is concerned to make it clear that Joseph and Mary had no relations before then. It is the virgin birth, not later siblings, that Matthew is concerned with.
You are effectively arguing that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words
heos hou for "until" whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use
heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that
Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph "not having come together" would have ended after Jesus was born.
The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary.
Heos hou and
heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: "But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar."
Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was "sent" to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with
heos hou.
Do ponder these points and see whether you may not be jumping to a certain conclusion.
Or if the Marian veneration was about Mary being the most blessed while not being sinless or an ever virgin then I can agree with it.
If what you are after is a church which agrees with you, then fair enough. If you want the Church which pronounced on the nature of the NT, it also pronounced St. Mary ever Virgin. (Ephesus 431).
Here, the Orthodox and the Catholics, and some Anglicans agree. It may be that your incisive intellect alone pierces the cloud of unknowing; but it may be that others, who have walked with Christ before, have this right.
peace,
Anglian