All legitimate parables are identified as such. They use common every day, events, known and understood by Jesus' audience, to explain or clarify unclear Biblical truths. Since the most ancient times shepherds have lost sheep, people have lost coins, and found them. Sons have squandered their father's money and returned home in shame, etc. Jesus could legitimately use anonymous people and events as parabolic illustrations.
Unlike the legitimate parables, in this story Jesus identifies two people by name, Lazarus and an actual historical person, Abraham. Jesus quotes the rich man as addressing him, as father Abraham. If Abraham was not in that specific place, and did not speak the words that Jesus quoted, then Jesus was lying.
Unlike the legitimate parables, which use common ordinary everyday events, the story of Lazarus and the rich man uses death and post death events, something entirely unknown to his audience and even to people today. Nobody knows, or has ever known, exactly what happens, immediately after death. Jesus never identified the story as a parable, and never explained the relevance as he did in all legitimate parables. Were one to search online you would find dozens of "explanations" of what the "parable really means."
Some argue that "hell," as a place of eternal punishment, is a pagan belief imagined in scripture by modern scholars, etc. Why would Jesus use nonexistent, imaginary, easily misunderstood, pagan appearing events to illustrate some Biblical teaching which he never explains?
Still ignoring the context of this verse trying to prove your assumptions/presuppositions. This is NOT speaking of the condition of the dead but things in this lifetime, "under the sun."
