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Theistic evolutionists please explain this.

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Nicaea 325

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I know Jesus rose from the dead and I know that the evidence for our ancestors being apes is quite large so, can you Christians who believe we came from monkeys explain yiour way round this please?

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
15But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God's grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many!
 

LewisWildermuth

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If they were reading Genesis literaly why did they get it wrong?

Sin did not enter the world through one man... The First human to eat of the tree was Eve, a woman. Then there was the snake, who was sinning by his deception, then there was God himself who put the tree there...
 
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lucaspa

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East Anglican said:
I know Jesus rose from the dead and I know that the evidence for our ancestors being apes is quite large so, can you Christians who believe we came from monkeys explain yiour way round this please?

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
15But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God's grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many!
You have to realize that Paul was making up a theology from scratch. He couldn't keep the Jewish theology entirely because he was converting Gentiles that had no idea what the Jews believed. So, Paul was simultaneously trying to teach the Gentiles something about Judaism, place Jesus in Judaism, but preach also the gospel of salvation.

So ... here is my opinion. The OT is clear in some places that what Paul is stating here is not permitted: you are not allowed to punish the sons for the sins of the fathers:

Deut. 24:16 "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers (2Chron.25:54) :every man shall be put to death for his own sin." (2 Kings 14:6)

Ezek. 18:20 "The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him."

What Paul is trying to tell us is that all of us sin. He did so in the poetic language of having Adam be what Genesis 2 intended him to be: the archetype for all of us. When Paul says "sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned" he is saying that each and every one of us is that "one man". So, since each of us sins, all sin.

Now, Paul has a problem. Paul wants all people saved by Jesus -- Jew and Gentile alike. But in Jewish theology sin was defined as going against the Law. Since the Jews are still obeying the Law, then they are not sinning and don't "need" Jesus. By making sin "hereditary", Paul gets around this difficulty and makes Jews also need salvation.

What has happened since is that this practical theology -- facing a particular set of circumstances -- has been expanded by some Christians as an overarching theory that there was no physical death in the world before Adam's disobedience.

However, as Lewis pointed out, if Paul is really reading Genesis 3 literally, sin came into the world because of Eve. Eve is the one that disobeyed first. Only after that did she convince Adam. But that doesn't work for Paul's theology, does it? After all, he is trying to tie the Gentiles to Judaism and has chosen to make Jesus symbolic. Since Jesus is a male, he has to relate to Adam, not Eve. So Paul casually discards the literal reading in order to make his theological point.
 
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Didaskomenos

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If you accept the Creation story as mythology, it makes sense that one can make allusions to this mythology just as people do Greek mythology today. If Paul had said, "Just as sin entered the world through Pandora's box, so the Remedy for sin exited the box on the third day to conquer sin," would Paul be wrong? Even if the readers knew good and well that Pandora was not historical, the point would not be lost on them. Such applicability is the purpose for mythology. It doesn't need historical details to explain truth. Moses and the Hebrews didn't have to know the scientific details of how God created the earth and people are biologically incapable of godly perfection - that's why they chose etiological mythology.
 
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Karl - Liberal Backslider

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Ark Guy said:
East Anglican,

Don't you know that the Theo-Evos believe that most of the bible is make believe?

Just about everything but the resurrection, according to them is not true. Good moral book though.
Someone remind me what the Ninth Commandment says - better still, someone tell Ark "False Witness" Guy here.
 
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seebs

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East Anglican said:
I know Jesus rose from the dead and I know that the evidence for our ancestors being apes is quite large so, can you Christians who believe we came from monkeys explain yiour way round this please?

Well, it's a little hard to find anyone who believes we "came from monkeys".

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned-- 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
15But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God's grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many!

What's to explain? I see nothing unusual here. Once there came to be humans, and God gave us the breath of life, which is to say, a soul, we became capable of sin. It's quite possible (and indeed, many people believe this) that the first two people were members of a species with other members; this would explain where all the missing people came from for Adam's kids to marry.
 
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Nicaea 325

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What I get from Gen 3 is "It was the woman you gave me" means it' was her fault and it's your fault God, for putting her here" and "The serpent made me eat" means it's the devils fault, not mine." From the beginning to now, people hate to take responsibility for their actions.
 
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Micaiah

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This thread is a study on the different ways to rationalise a belief (in evolution as an explanation of origins) that contradicts the plain teaching of Scripture.

If they were reading Genesis literaly why did they get it wrong?

Sin did not enter the world through one man... The First human to eat of the tree was Eve, a woman. Then there was the snake, who was sinning by his deception, then there was God himself who put the tree there...

METHOD 1. Look for a clause that is requires some insight to understand and explain. Claim it is a contradiction and use this as a pretext to reject the plain teaching of the passage.

You have to realize that Paul was making up a theology from scratch. He couldn't keep the Jewish theology entirely because he was converting Gentiles that had no idea what the Jews believed. So, Paul was simultaneously trying to teach the Gentiles something about Judaism, place Jesus in Judaism, but preach also the gospel of salvation.

So ... here is my opinion.

METHOD 2. Ignore the plain teaching of Scripture that the writers of Scripture were inspired. The assumption here is that the writing of Scripture was the fruit of human intellect alone, rather that divine revelation.

The OT is clear in some places that what Paul is stating here is not permitted: you are not allowed to punish the sons for the sins of the fathers:

Deut. 24:16 "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers (2Chron.25:54) :every man shall be put to death for his own sin." (2 Kings 14:6)

Ezek. 18:20 "The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him."

See Method 1 above.

What Paul is trying to tell us is that all of us sin. He did so in the poetic language of having Adam be what Genesis 2 intended him to be: the archetype for all of us. When Paul says "sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned" he is saying that each and every one of us is that "one man". So, since each of us sins, all sin.

METHOD 3. Ignore the plain teaching of the passage by claiming it is poetic, or an allegory. Make up an interpretation that remotely parallels Scripture, and that you feel coomfortable with.

Now, Paul has a problem. Paul wants all people saved by Jesus -- Jew and Gentile alike. But in Jewish theology sin was defined as going against the Law. Since the Jews are still obeying the Law, then they are not sinning and don't "need" Jesus. By making sin "hereditary", Paul gets around this difficulty and makes Jews also need salvation. What has happened since is that this practical theology -- facing a particular set of circumstances -- has been expanded by some Christians as an overarching theory that there was no physical death in the world before Adam's disobedience.

However, as Lewis pointed out, if Paul is really reading Genesis 3 literally, sin came into the world because of Eve. Eve is the one that disobeyed first. Only after that did she convince Adam. But that doesn't work for Paul's theology, does it? After all, he is trying to tie the Gentiles to Judaism and has chosen to make Jesus symbolic. Since Jesus is a male, he has to relate to Adam, not Eve. So Paul casually discards the literal reading in order to make his theological point.

The three previous methods are seen in this statement.

has been expanded by some Christians as an overarching theory that there was no physical death in the world before Adam's disobedience.

METHOD 4. When a Christian who accepts and obeys the plain teaching of Scripture cries foul, and corrects the distortions that have occured, dismiss their comment with the claim it is a personal interpretation.


If you accept the Creation story as mythology, it makes sense that one can make allusions to this mythology just as people do Greek mythology today. If Paul had said, "Just as sin entered the world through Pandora's box, so the Remedy for sin exited the box on the third day to conquer sin," would Paul be wrong? Even if the readers knew good and well that Pandora was not historical, the point would not be lost on them. Such applicability is the purpose for mythology. It doesn't need historical details to explain truth. Moses and the Hebrews didn't have to know the scientific details of how God created the earth and people are biologically incapable of godly perfection - that's why they chose etiological mythology.

METHOD 5 This is really a sub set of method 2. Make the claim that what Scripture says is myth.

What's to explain? I see nothing unusual here. Once there came to be humans, and God gave us the breath of life, which is to say, a soul, we became capable of sin. It's quite possible (and indeed, many people believe this) that the first two people were members of a species with other members; this would explain where all the missing people came from for Adam's kids to marry.

The three previous methods are seen in this statement. In this case, an interpretation is developed that means you don't have to reject popular science, and believe what God says which is unpopular.


The underpinning assumptions are:

1. The popular opinions of man are to be trusted more than divine revelation.
2. Scripture is the result of man's musings about God, not a Divinely inspired record.
3. Since Scripture is man's ideas, they can be challenged and interpretted in a way that doesn't upset your own sensibilities.
 
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Micaiah

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The explanation to the above passage is relatively simple if you know meaning of the english terms used and have a disposition to accept the plain truth conveyed in Scripture.

12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man,

Sin came into the world because of man's disobedience to God's command. As the representitive of the human race, Adam bears responsibility for sin entering the world.

and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned--

As warned by God, the result of disobedience would be death. That occured both spiritually in the separation man experience from God, and physically. Sickness and death entered the world as the result of sin. When God created the world, He proclaimed it very good. It was a perfect environment, free from the effects of sin. That is why the notion that God used evolution which involves pain, suffereing and death is wrong. Sin forever changed the world.

13 for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.

All experienced the painful consequences of sin, even during the time when there was no legal framework to define sin.

15But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God's grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many!

All men have inherited Adam's sinful nature. All are born inherently bad. That is manifest by the bad things every person does.

Just as Adam's sin infected all humanity, the death of the God-Man Jesus Christ, made it possible for all humanity to be delivered from the sin that enslaved, and the inevitable consequences.

My parent's conduct may give me a predisposition to a life of crime, but under a fair legal system, I should not be punished for the wrong they have done. However, if I choose to follow their foot steps, and live a life of crime, I can expect to be punished for my actions.

We inherited Adam's sinful nature. However, Christ made it possible for us to live a life that pleases God. Each is responsible for their own destiny - heaven or hell.
 
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lucaspa

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Micaiah said:
This thread is a study on the different ways to rationalise a belief (in evolution as an explanation of origins) that contradicts the plain teaching of Scripture.
1. Evolution is not a "belief" as you use the term. It is what God plainly tells us in His Creation.
2. Evolution does not contradict a "plain teaching of Scripture". It contradicts a particular fallible human theory about scripture.


METHOD 1. Look for a clause that is requires some insight to understand and explain.
What happened to "the plain teaching of Scripture"? This contradicts your own claim. What this means is that any plain reading of Scripture that contradicts your theory is now Scripture that "requires some insight to understand and explain". Now, why doesn't that same "requires some insight to understand and explain" apply to the statements you claim are "plain teaching"?

For instance, what is the "plain teaching" here?
Deut. 24:16 "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers (2Chron.25:54) :every man shall be put to death for his own sin." (2 Kings 14:6)

Ezek. 18:20 "The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him."


The "plain teaching" is that children cannot be put to death for the sins of their fathers. So, the plain teaching is that God can put Adam and Eve to death for their sin, but can't put you or I to death for their sin. But since that plainly contradicts your theory, you simply ignore the verses.

METHOD 2. Ignore the plain teaching of Scripture that the writers of Scripture were inspired. The assumption here is that the writing of Scripture was the fruit of human intellect alone, rather that divine revelation.
Not necessarily. God is going to face the same problem: teaching Gentiles Judaism. The explanation I gave is going to apply under your "divine revelation" just as much as how I phrased it.

However, Paul especially is clear sometimes in his letters where he is speaking as himself and when he is speaking as an agent of God. So we know that not all of Paul's work is inspired; that it is the fruit of Paul alone. Paul says so.

Finally, their are two errors with the literalist approach:
1. It takes the text out of the time and place where it was written. That is, it ignores that God is making a particular message in a particular situation. That is especially true of Paul's letters. Paul is writing in response to particular problems in particular churches. You can't ignore that.
2. It takes the theory and then interprets all of Scripture in that light. IOW, it doesn't let Scripture speak for itself, but imposes its interpretation on Scripture. This is nowhere more evident than in making Satan the serpent in Genesis 3. The text of Genesis 3 not only fails to support that, but actually contradicts it. But that doesn't stop the forced interpretation. IOW, literalism do what it accuses "evolutionists" of doing -- interpreting Scripture in the light of its theory.

METHOD 3. Ignore the plain teaching of the passage by claiming it is poetic, or an allegory. Make up an interpretation that remotely parallels Scripture, and that you feel coomfortable with.
The plain teaching of Genesis 2-3 is that it is allegory. The names Adam and Eve give it away right at the start. When your two principle characters are Dirt and Hearth, that tells you right there you have allegory. It's nice, Micaiah, that you admit that my opinion about Paul's passage is consistent with Scripture ("remotely parallels Scripture") If I was really wrong, you would have shown me how I contradict Scripture.


The three previous methods are seen in this statement.
Please walk me through your thought processes on how you reached your conclusion. Show exactly how the sentences you refer to meet your various Methods, please.

has been expanded by some Christians as an overarching theory that there was no physical death in the world before Adam's disobedience.
METHOD 4. When a Christian who accepts and obeys the plain teaching of Scripture cries foul, and corrects the distortions that have occured, dismiss their comment with the claim it is a personal interpretation.
1. It is simply a statement of a theory of Biblical literalists. Also, you never corrected the distortions. Have I misstated the theory? If so, how?
2. You have simply asserted that they are distortions, but not corrected them. How is that crying "foul"?
3. Didn't you dismiss my opinion as a "personal interpretation"? Micaiah, Biblical literalism is a "personal interpretation". What you are claiming is that it is the only legitimate interpretation. We are arguing whether it is the only legitimate interpretation. I am not dismissing the literalist interpretation because it is personal, but because it:
  • Ignores the time, place, and circumstances of the Scripture, thus violating 3 of the Rules of Interpretation.
  • Ignores other Scripture on the subject.
  • Is not consistent in that you don't take the plain teaching in all scripture.
  • Ignores evidence in the text that the verses you refer to were never meant to be read literally.
METHOD 5 This is really a sub set of method 2. Make the claim that what Scripture says is myth.
Not at all.
1. Myth is not necessarily false. There are other truths than historical or scientific.
2. Several of us have made the same point Didaskamenos made: the story does not have to be historically true for others to refer to it to illustrate moral or theological truths. Again, you can say Schwartzenegger has a "Herculean" physique without Hercules being a historical person. The meaning comes thru very plainly.

The underpinning assumptions are:

1. The popular opinions of man are to be trusted more than divine revelation.
2. Scripture is the result of man's musings about God, not a Divinely inspired record.
3. Since Scripture is man's ideas, they can be challenged and interpretted in a way that doesn't upset your own sensibilities.
1. Science is directly reading God's Book of Creation. Science is studying divine revelation. If God had really created as your interpretation says, then He would have made His Creation look like it.
2. Remember, it was men who picked what is scripture. That is, men picked the books they would consider Scripture. What we are saying is that the divine inspiration occurred in a particular time and place. In order to completely understand it, you have to consider that time and place. To do otherwise is to misinterpret Scripture.
3. Jesus is the LIVING WORD. Not just something written in a book. This one is worshipping the Bible, not God. Yes, we can gain a further insight into God through our own experience and reason.

The more I look at it, Micaiah, that #3 above is one of the clearest statements you have yet made of bibliolatry -- worship of the Bible. I would remind you of the First Commandment.
 
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Micaiah

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METHOD 5 Is a method that is not unique to liberal Christians. This is the final stage of deception. The person has twisted the truth so much and so often that eventually they believe their own deception. While the truth is plain to those willing to accept it, these people attack that truth and claim it is a lie.
 
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Saviourmachine

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Let's go on with the matter itself. It seems the keyword here is inheritence.

A hereditary disease
It's not fair of God that He would pass something bad from father to sun. I look at sin/evil as a biological, hereditary disease. It's awfull that there is such a thing, but it's reality!

Personally
And beside that, personally, I have already done enough things to doubt my 'inner goodness', enough to by stoned in ancient times... So, it's not true that I should be punished for the acts of my parents, I've messed up it myself.

Innocent people
Maybe there exist people, who aren't like me, who did praise God whole their life. Maybe some 'innocent' childeren. I think it's clear from scripture that God accepts them. But it's on other grounds then because they are 'innocent'. It's because God loves all people. I think of David with his unborn child, he was praying dilligently. Don't think too easy of it, but God is merciful, rely on Him.

A last thought
A last thought: think about evil/diseases as causes to glorify God. That was Jesus saying to the accusers of the blind man.
 
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Micaiah

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1. It is simply a statement of a theory of Biblical literalists. Also, you never corrected the distortions. Have I misstated the theory? If so, how?
2. You have simply asserted that they are distortions, but not corrected them. How is that crying "foul"?
3. Didn't you dismiss my opinion as a "personal interpretation"? Micaiah, Biblical literalism is a "personal interpretation". What you are claiming is that it is the only legitimate interpretation. We are arguing whether it is the only legitimate interpretation. I am not dismissing the literalist interpretation because it is personal, but because it:

The label 'Biblical literalist' is not an accurate reflection of my method of interpretting Scripture. You should do some more reading on this subject.
 
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lucaspa

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Micaiah said:
The explanation to the above passage is relatively simple if you know meaning of the english terms
But Paul wrote in Greek. So what you really need is familiarity with Greek, don't you? So, before we get into this in detail, let's check the translations of Romans 5:12-19. This is KJV
"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. "

This is the RSV:
"Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned--
sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sins were not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.
But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man's trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift in the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many."

However, before I get into the specifics, I should have learned by now that literalists take even the Bible out of context. We have to go up to the beginning of the chapter to see where Paul was coming from.

"Therefore, since we are justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ.
Through him we have obtained access to this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in our hope of sharing the glory of God."

Paul is emphasizing the reconciliation with God thru Jesus, not how we got separated.
6:"While we were still weak, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly.
Why, one will hardly die for a righteous man--though perhaps for a good man one will dare even to die.
But God shows his love for us in that while we were yet sinners Christ died for us.Rom 5:9 Since, therefore, we are now justified by his blood, much more shall we be saved by him from the wrath of God.Rom 5:10 For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, now that we are reconciled, shall we be saved by his life.Rom 5:11 Not only so, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received our reconciliation.Rom 5:12 Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned--

Paul's (and God's) purpose is now much plainer. This isn't a treatise on how sin came into the world, this is a treatise on how we are saved from our sins and how we get reconciled with God.

Sin came into the world because of man's disobedience to God's command. As the representitive of the human race, Adam bears responsibility for sin entering the world.
What is an "archetype"? It is a representation for all. Thank you, Micaiah, you have just backed up and agreed with our interpretation of Genesis 2-3 and of Paul. Adam stands for each of us. He is our "representative" and represents our individual behavior. But look at Romans 5:1-11. Jesus is reconciling us with God and that God did this before we had corrected ourselves. God made this effort for us while we were in sin, not forgave us after we had pulled ourselves out of sin.

As warned by God, the result of disobedience would be death. That occured both spiritually in the separation man experience from God, and physically. Sickness and death entered the world as the result of sin.
I partly agree with the first sentence and the first clause of the second.
That is, the consequence of disobedience is separation and the consequence of separation is spiritual death. However, the physical death and the conclusions that sickness and physical death entered the world as the result of sin simply isn't justified by a plain reading of Genesis 3. Nor is Paul saying that here. You have gone way off the scriptural reservation and made up a theory of your own. A theory I say is falsified by scripture and the data God left us in His Creation.

When God created the world, He proclaimed it very good. It was a perfect environment, free from the effects of sin.
The first sentence is accurate, but the second is pure speculation. Nor is your implication that the effects of sin is pain, suffering, and death scriptural. Humans were allowed to eat agricultural plants, which means death for the plant.

That is why the notion that God used evolution which involves pain, suffereing and death is wrong. Sin forever changed the world.
There is nothing in Genesis 1-3 that says that pain, suffering, and death were absent before the Fall. This is pure speculation on your part. The punishment of God to Adam and Eve is spelled out very specifically in Genesis 3. While a few things were changed, those are very specific. And the changes do not include what you are claiming here.


But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command,

All experienced the painful consequences of sin, even during the time when there was no legal framework to define sin.
You ignored the "sin is not taken into account when there is no law". Here Paul, quite frankly, is contradicting himself. If death is a consequence of sin, and sin is not taken into account when there is no law, then there was no sin. Paul has a problem here with his Jewish background. You are saying people sin exists whether there is a legal framework or not. I tend to agree, but our stance is against the plain reading of this verse. I would say that you can disobey God even when you don't know what the rules are. And this is, indeed, a basic legal principle: you can get convicted of a crime even tho you had no idea the behavior was a crime.

However, if we go back to verses 1-11 this becomes much plainer. Paul is saying that all of us are cut off from God whether we break a specific commandment or not. That our behavior in general is disobedience.

All men have inherited Adam's sinful nature. All are born inherently bad. That is manifest by the bad things every person does.
Ah, changed the terms. Now you are talking about a "sinful nature" and not sin itself. When you say "bad things every person does" you are coming around to our point of view, Micaiah. Those "bad things" are our sins. Not Adam's sin. However, this still is against what Paul said: "death spread to all men because all men sinned" Paul did not say that they "inherited" Adam's sinful nature. Paul does not say (and God did not inspire him to say) why it is that all men sinned! You made this one up yourself, Micaiah. It is not God inspired. God left the reason all men sinned conspicuously blank.

Just as Adam's sin infected all humanity, the death of the God-Man Jesus Christ, made it possible for all humanity to be delivered from the sin that enslaved, and the inevitable consequences.
Paul's message is certainly that last: that Jesus' death reconciles all to God. It is a gift that applies to everyone. But Paul's major message in 1-11 is that the gift is not dependent on what we have done. The gift is given even while we are sinners and cut off from God. We don't have to do anything to receive the gift -- like stop disobeying.

Here again, Adam is simply, as you put it, representing all people. Instead of saying "hey you, you sin", Paul is using Adam as the representative for everyone.

My parent's conduct may give me a predisposition to a life of crime, but under a fair legal system, I should not be punished for the wrong they have done. However, if I choose to follow their foot steps, and live a life of crime, I can expect to be punished for my actions.
Yes, for your actions. Not for theirs. However, do they "inject" you with a crime-committing virus? Or, more accurately, are their crimes a virus that you get infected with to commit more crimes? Remember, you said "Adam's sin infected all humanity". How can that be? Unless sin is a microbe or virus or unless Adam specifically taught his kids to disobey God and their kids taught their kids, etc. But your parents taught you to obey God, didn't they? So there is no way for the "infection" to travel.

We inherited Adam's sinful nature.
Will you pick an idea and stick with it? You have
1. Adam's sin infecting everyone.
2. Adam's sinful nature being inherited.
3. Adam's sin being inherited.

It can't be all of them.

Let's try this. All humans sin. But not because of a literal Adam. Instead, we have a sinful nature precisely because we evolved. Natural selection chooses selfishness. The whole idea of the selfish gene, remember? And selfishness automatically results in disobedience to others because we choose what we want and not what is good for others.

Evolution actually solves your dilemma, Micaiah! No, we don't have a literal Adam, but we do have a sinful nature. And we got it as a byproduct of the method by which we were created: evolution!

However, Christ made it possible for us to live a life that pleases God. Each is responsible for their own destiny - heaven or hell.
That's not what Romans 5 says. Paul says that Jesus' death reconciled us to God. And that death, with the reconciliation, is a gift from God. It has nothing to do with living a life that pleases God. The gift is given when we are not living such a life. It has nothing to do with our responsibility. It is purely of God and from God. People have nothing to do with it at all.

Micaiah, if you are going to live by scripture, then at least read it and stop making it up.
 
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lucaspa

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Saviourmachine said:
Let's go on with the matter itself. It seems the keyword here is inheritence.

A hereditary disease
It's not fair of God that He would pass something bad from father to sun. I look at sin/evil as a biological, hereditary disease. It's awfull that there is such a thing, but it's reality!
The passages do not say "something bad". They say "sin" and "inequities". It is talking about our behavior, not our genes. God does not pass on hereditary diseases; genes do.

And beside that, personally, I have already done enough things to doubt my 'inner goodness', enough to by stoned in ancient times... So, it's not true that I should be punished for the acts of my parents, I've messed up it myself.
Which is against the theory that we are all punished for Adam's sin. Of course, even Micaiah is backing away from this one. Now you are getting closer to the theistic evolutionist interpretation of the passage.

A last thought
A last thought: think about evil/diseases as causes to glorify God. That was Jesus saying to the accusers of the blind man.
Another thought. Evil/disease/accidents are a consequence of God setting up a universe where our lives can have meaning.
 
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lucaspa

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Micaiah said:
The label 'Biblical literalist' is not an accurate reflection of my method of interpretting Scripture. You should do some more reading on this subject.
Biblical literalists use the term "plain reading" as describing how they interpret scripture. It seemed the closest label to what you are doing.

However, if you don't like the label, which one would you prefer to describe your method of interpretation? After all, a rose by any other name ...

And, of all my points about how you interpret, you don't argue that any of my points are inaccurate, but only complain about the identifying shorthand label???:confused:
 
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Larry

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EA:

How many times, and in how many different ways will it take to get it through that thick head of yours, that evolution does not have man descending from apes? Do you exagerate this on purpose? If you are such a literalist where the Bible is concerned, why do you take such liberties in exagerating the theory of evolution? If you twist and stretch what the theory of evolution states in order to force a point, how can you be trusted in anything else? Your credibility is diminished when you say such things. You have been corrected on this many times already. The fact that you continue in this manner, shows that you either do not know about the subject you are arguing against, or you are purposefully lying. Which is it?
 
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