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The "world" in John 3:16

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BBAS 64

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theseed

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theseed

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BBAS 64

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Good Day,

James White in a response to Dave Hunt, gives a full understanding in the Greek.

I am only posting part of the reply, but recommend the whole response.

[font=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]The Meaning and Extent of [/font][font=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]kosmos
[/font]
[font=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]The great controversy that rages around the term “world” is wholly unnecessary. The wide range of uses of kosmos (world) in the Johannine corpus is well known. John 3:16 does not define the extent of kosmos. However, a few things are certain: it is not the “world” that Jesus says He does not pray for in John 17:9, a “world” that is differentiated from those the Father has given Him: “I ask on their behalf; I do not ask on behalf of the world, but of those whom You have given Me; for they are Yours.” It is not the “world” that is arrayed as an enemy against God’s will and truth, either, as seen in 1 John 2:15: “Do not love the world nor the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him.” Obviously, the “world” we are not to love in 1 John 2:15 is not the world God showed His love toward by sending His unique Son. The most that can be said by means of exegesis (rather than by insertion via tradition) is that the world is shown love through the giving of the Son so that a specific, particular people receive eternal life through faith in Him. Since we know that not all are saved by faith in Christ, it is utterly unwarranted to read into kosmos some universal view of humanity: how is God’s love shown for one who experiences eternal punishment by the provision of salvation for someone else? Surely, then, this is a general use of kosmos, with more specific uses of the term coming in the following verses. That is, the common meaning of world that would have suggested itself to the original readers (Jew and Gentile), and this is born out by the parallel passage in 1 John 4, as we will see below.[/font]

http://aomin.org/DHOpenLetter.html

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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BBAS 64

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theseed said:
Why look in just John 3:16?

John uses the word "world" more than 50 times to represent all of humanity in a total depraved state.

http://www.biblegateway.com/cgi-bin/bible?search=world&SearchType=AND&version=NIV&restrict=&StartRestrict=JOHN&EndRestrict=JOHN&rpp=100&language=english&searchpage=0&x=14&y=11
Good day, Theseed

I have heard it said that many Greek NT scholars, have identified 20 differnet usages of the english word "world" in the NT. Do you have any information on that, have you ever heard that?

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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theseed

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theseed

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We must realize that John uses symbols, and symbolic language over and over again. Which makes it easy to determine what he means, if we take the Gospel as a whole.

My studies in John have come from the New Interpereters Bible, Gail R. O'Day wrote the part about the Gospel of John. The Commentary is 12 volumes in all, huge, and is written by many differnt writers. I only have vol 9, and 12 because they are $30-40 a piece
 
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BBAS 64

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theseed said:
The irony is that I did this exegesis a while back to disprove Don (Reformationist), only later to become Calvinist based on my studies.[/QUOTE

OH, yeah I remember those threads, he really help me in my learning and studies.

Bill
 
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