MamaZ, I know you love Calvinism. I do not doubt that.
This is your first error..
I love the word of God..
I do not follow after a man called Calvin. I follow after my Lord and savior and His name is Christ Jesus. His word is light unto my path..
My aim here though is to challenge you to defend those doctrines Scripturally because you say they are the doctrines of scripture.
I have given you scripture..
For scripture tell us those whom He predestined He called..
Here are some more..
Act 4:27 "For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel,
Act 4:28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur.
Once again we see that what was done to Jesus was not by act of men without Gods predestination...
So far, you are not doing a very good job. You have not addressed the text I gave you that refutes your doctrine of "fatalism". That is that God is mindless and that he is so sovereign that he has decided all events before the foundation of the earth and cannot change even one, including his own. This is a box you have your god in and it is a very small one at that. Both the text I gave you in Ge 6, other scripture, and I, have made the case that God repented, which the text says means that he was grieved in his heart, and did something in response to man that did not please him and He killed them! That was not his intention for man.
Re 4:11 Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for thou hast created all things, and
for thy pleasure they are and were created.
Ge 6:7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for
it repenteth me that I have made them.
Eze 33:11 Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord GOD,
I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked;
Heb 11:6
But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
Heb 10:38 Now
the just shall live by faith: but if [any man] draw back, my soul shall have
no pleasure in him.
You, my friend, are not defending the scriptures, you are defending Calvinism. Every thing you have said in response to me is to reiterate Calvinist dogma. I am sorry for you!
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No, I am not trying to offend you but I type slow and this is mt hurry up mode.
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I can expect a Calvinist to be consistent with the doctrines he presents here and not to act sanctimonious and condescending with comments like MamaZ made, "all are welcome at the cross". It is insulting and it does not agree with TULIP. Your doctrine states that a man in his natural state has no ability to respond favorably to God because he is dead, like a corpse. He can and does respond unfavorably to God though, he hates him, according to you, and God must regenerate, quicken, give life to, the dead elect man before he can do anything in relationship to his salvation. The dead unelect man is predestinated to hell and coming to the cross will have no effect whatsoever on him because it is not the sovereighn will of God to regenerate him so he can have the gift of faith and so he can believe and be saved.
YOU HAVE AN ORDO SALUTIS, and I know what it is even if MamaZ does not!
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I agree that no one knows who is elect in this scheme and that would include the Calvinist who says he is. There is not a passage in scripture that one can go to and find God personalizing election for a single one of you. Everything is subjective and election is always in a corprate context, except in the case of Jesus Christ. Ask a Calvinist how he knows he is elect and he will not quote God saying he is but will begin to present evidence of good works to validate his election. This will not cut it in the judgment.
Why would a man show up at the judgment claiming he is elect and he did not even have faith, the only principle that God requires of man, and expect to be accepted of God? Especially since God has said words like these, "Jer 17:9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?" And "Pr 20:6 Most men will proclaim every one his own goodness: but a faithful man who can find?"
You say that doctrine of election promotes grace and I say it does not. It promotes limited atonement! Grace is the "giving" of God, it is not the withholding of God. How can the word "limited" even be used in the context of a sovereign God?
Grace is the operative principle of God's divine dealing with mankind in the present age we are living in at this time. It is grace because from Pentecost in Acts 2, God has poured out his Spirit on mankind and offered him as a "gift" to all who would receive him in the name of Jesus Christ. This is divine giving! It is especially "grace" for the gentiles seeing as how God had said this about them in time past! Eph 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye [being] in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: 13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
The Spirit was promised to Jews in a covenant promise, but not to gentiles. Eze 11:19 And I will give them (Israel) one heart, and I will put a new spirit within you; and I will take the stony heart out of their flesh, and will give them an heart of flesh:
Therefore, the giving of the Spirit to the gentiles beginning in Acts 10 to the present day is an act of pure grace by God seeing as he had made no promise to us that he was obliged to keep. The historical book of Acts reflects this truth as well. In the first 10 chapters the word "grace" is mentioned once when Peter was the preacher and the Jews were the focus of his evangelistic efforts but in the rest of the book, "grace" is mentioned 9 (the number for fruitbearing) times when the focus was on the gentiles and Paul was the preacher of record.
Notice how this is expressed in Ephesians, the epistle that explains the church!
Eph 2:1 And you (gentiles) [hath he quickened], who were dead in trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein in time past ye (gentiles) walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
4 But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us,
5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together (Jews who were saved first and gentiles) with Christ, (by grace ye (gentiles) are saved)
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye (gentiles) saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:
One needs to ask why Paul would have spoken as if to say that it is the gentiles that are saved by grace through faith like in this statement: 5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved). He uses the pronoun "us together" and then singles out the gentiles as being saved by grace. Was paul saved by grace? Yes, but the epistle is explaining the inclusion of the gentiles and on what godly principle they were included. This is the revelation of the "mystery" that both groups were put together in one body and accepted by God
IN THAT BODY.
Grace, Holy Ghost, salvation,
THE gift of God, and eternal life are all synonyms and mean the same thing in the NT.
I could continue and offer even stronger proof but you are not predisposed to allow anything to challenge your presuppositions. I can ask if you would consider that Calvinism is a systematic error and is not a right division of scripture.