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cygnusx1

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WHAT IS SALVATION THEN!

you don't know ? but you come to soteriology and give it this


Salvation is to do with sin Law and justification .



Regeneration is to do with moving from slavery to a Child of God .


It is not enough that sinners are forgiven , they must be made righteous ; imputed righteousness of Christ .


It is further granted that with Righteousness it is revealed who are the sons of God .
 
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Van

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D Wallace's book is available on the web, in book stores and in libraries. Oworm simply is changing the subject. Evasion. The Topic is the Tulip is broken, and one of the shards is the gift of faith is not supported by Ephesians 2:8 according to D. Wallace.

Note that Oworm is consistently evasive, constantly asking me to do what he claims he needs, rather than address the topic. ROFLOL
 
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heymikey80

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Folks I see personal incredulity being offered up yet again as a rebuttal to scripture. Choice means choice, the scripture uses the word choice again and again, so every time you see choice it says autonomous decision. Every time.
So when God says "you did not choose me" we can conclude that can't possibly be an autonomous decision in Van's view:
You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you that you should go and bear fruit and that your fruit should abide, so that whatever you ask the Father in my name, he may give it to you. John 15:16
An added bonus: the autonomous decision? That was His.
 
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Van

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The TULIP is broken and all the name calling and disparagement heaped upon me such as calling me a sham or calling my posts mindless does not alter that fact.

The "T" refers to total spiritual inability and has been shown to be broken by Matthew 13:20-22 where unregenerate folks receive the gospel with joy.

The "U" refers to unconditional election and has been shown to be broken by James 2:5 where God chooses folks for salvation based on their characteristics.

The "L" refers to limited atonement as defined by Calvinism, and has been shown to be broken by 1 John 2:2 where Christ is the propitiation for the whole world.

The "I" refers to irresistible grace, and has been shown to be broken by Matthew 23:13 where folks entering heaven, and therefore according to Calvinist doctrine under the influence of irresistible grace, were shut off from entering by false teachers.

The concept of the gift of faith has been shown to be not supported by Ephesians 2:8.
 
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heymikey80

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James 2:5 is showning God is not partial to rich folks, but He is partial to folks who love Him. That is why He chose them, keeping His promise to those who love Him. Folks who are rich in faith, but not necessarily rich in the eyes of the world.
Say it out loud, Van. What's James 2:5 have to say if you conclude from this that God is not partial to the rich? It must conclude that God is partial to the poor.

Read it. It says nothing about the rich, but about the poor.
Listen, my beloved brothers, has not God chosen those who are poor in the world rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom, which he has promised to those who love him? James 2:5
And it's certainly not exclusively about the poor, if Paul is addressing the chosen rich in 1 Tim 6. Which he is.

Don't you have some Scripture to back up your assertions? Or are you just quoting randomly? That would lead us to conclude that you're a Scripture unto yourself -- a word of Law unto yourself -- an autonomy -- and that's not Scriptural.
 
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nobdysfool

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The convenience factor seems a little too convenient. Nevertheless, once the book is in hand, all will be revealed.
 
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cygnusx1

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well accusing Oworm of changing the subject is parr for the course , who was it who brought Wallace into this anti-TULIP thread ? ahhhhhhh yes , it was VAN !!! he has moaned about derailing 'his' thread and he instigated it ......... now that is funny!

even this Arminian writer admits Wallace view has several weaknesses , the real problem is that his own view is even weaker !


scroll down two-thirds for the "Wallace" stuff ;

http://64.233.169.104/search?q=cache:cFzopwlfbVgJ:www.dts.edu/utility/file.
 
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heymikey80

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The problem of course is that the grammatical analysis reduces to probabilities. Wallace is accurate in "almost always" and "often" and "skeptical" (just look how skeptical Van is), but the forensic force of his words don't translate into debate rhetoric. They really do mean that sometimes this construction definitely does intend to mean the verse exactly as understood by Calvinists.

That's essentially why "the issue here is complex and can't be solved by the grammar alone." Wallace's inclinations are not those of native Middle Greek speakers. The syntax is understood by numerous native speakers of Middle Greek as including faith. Therefore its meaning really should be entrusted to those who know the syntax natively.
 
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oworm

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This from the article posted above by Cyg


http://64.233.169.104/search?q=cache...u/utility/file.
 
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heymikey80

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This from the article posted above by Cyg

... Nebeker presents another argument as to why ―faith is not the antecedent of the pronoun ―that. ...

http://64.233.169.104/search?q=cache...u/utility/file.
I've pointed out an obvious example which argues against this entire interpretation simply on its merits:
Only let your manner of life be worthy of the gospel of Christ, so that whether I come and see you or am absent, I may hear of you that you are standing firm in one spirit, with one mind striving side by side for the faith of the gospel, and not frightened in anything by your opponents. This is a clear sign to them of their destruction, but of your salvation, and that from God. Pp 1:27-28
It's the same construction as Ep 2:8. So let's go through this counterexample on a parallel course with Ep 2:8.

If Nebeker's argument carries, then in this case "and that from God" can't possibly refer to "salvation", because salvation isn't the antecedent of the pronoun -- that. Instead it's the "whole concept" of letting your manner of life being worthy of the Gospel, standing firm, having one mind, unfrightened -- that's from God.

Unfortunately that's absurd. If that's true, your argument is not simply lost to Calvinism -- it's lost to fatalism. The meaning is obviously that the Philippians' salvation is what's from God.

Turning to Ep 2:8, the same grammatical construction appears.

Only in the case of Ep 2:8, what stands where "salvation" stood in Pp 1:28?

"Faith".

It's definitely the case, there's no single interpretation of Ephesians 2:8's grammar. I'm not particularly wedded to interpreting it one way or another. From my "book larning" I'd side with the idea of it being an averbial reference demanding the entire process -- "by-grace-saved-through-faith". Unfortunately I still have to defer to people who spoke this very language who are all agreed when they say no matter what interpretation, it definitely refers to "faith". It may refer to the whole phrase; it may well refer specifically to the word "faith". But it's gonna include faith as being from God.
 
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oworm

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Yes

And this from Dr Sinclair B Ferguson


THE HOLY SPIRIT. SINCLAR B FERGUSON
CONTOURS OF CHRISTIAN THEOLOGY. INTERVARSITY PRESS PAGES 127-128
 
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Van

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To repeat folks, anyone who says Ephesians 2:8 supports the Calvinist doctrine of the gift of faith is presenting falsehood. The Greek word translated faith is in a different gender than the pronoun translated "that" and therefore "that" does not refer to faith as the gift of the sentence. But this Calvinist claim is posted again and again and the Calvinists who know the view is mistaken because of their book learning remain silent. Go figure.
 
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Van

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Because the pronoun ("that") is in the neuter gender, it can refer back to a conceptual antecedent. D. Wallace explains all this in Greek Grammar, Beyond the Basics. The conceptual antecedent is salvation by grace through faith. Salvation is the gift in view, and salvation is not of ourselves, it is a gift of God.

D. Wallace also explains why the argument presented by Kuyper is without merit, see pages 334 and 335.

Every time you see a Calvinist express the idea that Ephesians 2:8 supports its false doctrine of the gift of faith, know that Calvinism is thus supported by faulty understanding of the text.
Greek grammar precludes that the antecedent of "that" is faith, because the gender of "that" in the Greek is neuter, while the gender of "faith" in the Greek is female.
 
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Van

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The TULIP is broken and all the name calling and disparagement heaped upon me such as calling me a sham or calling my posts mindless does not alter that fact.

The "T" refers to total spiritual inability and has been shown to be broken by Matthew 13:20-22 where unregenerate folks receive the gospel with joy.

The "U" refers to unconditional election and has been shown to be broken by James 2:5 where God chooses folks for salvation based on their characteristics.

The "L" refers to limited atonement as defined by Calvinism, and has been shown to be broken by 1 John 2:2 where Christ is the propitiation for the whole world.

The "I" refers to irresistible grace, and has been shown to be broken by Matthew 23:13 where folks entering heaven, and therefore according to Calvinist doctrine under the influence of irresistible grace, were shut off from entering by false teachers.

The concept of the gift of faith has been shown to be not supported by Ephesians 2:8.
 
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heymikey80

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To repeat, some knowledge of linguistics is required to recognize what's going on.

Agreement in gender is not needed with a formulaic phrase. "and that" is a formulaic phrase. It means roughly "on top of that" in English. It appears as a formulaic phrase in Philippians 1:28 for instance.

Even in English, when "on top of that" is used to refer to a person, no one changes it. "Paris Hilton is rich -- and on top of that disturbed and seemingly inept." No one would demand English speakers change "on top of that" to "on top of her". In fact it'd be laughable, ludicrous, and mildly suggestive to recommend such a construction.

The same's true of Greek. Live with it.
 
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