The Trinity is true

[Daniel Marsh]

Actually, the Quran employs it when Allah speaks. It goes further back before the 13th century...

If Allah is One, Then Why Does He Refer to Himself with the Plural Pronoun, “We”? — Basira Education

The use of the pronoun “we” to connote divine majesty an ancient Arabian rhetorical devices that has fallen into disuse in both modern Arabic and modern English. This has led modern readers to misunderstand pronominal references to God using the majestic “we” as a Quranic justification for the Trini

www.basiraeducation.org

"To answer this question in more detail: the Qur’aan was revealed in the language of the Arabs, and in Arabic it is as correct to use the plural when speaking of one person as it is to use the singular. But the plural is used for respect and glorification, and no one is more deserving of respect and glorification than Allaah. "

Why does Allaah speak in the plural in the Qur’an? - Islam Question & Answer

islamqa.info

 

[Daniel Marsh]

"
In the Qur’an, as well as the Torah, the Almighty God uses plural pronouns (Us, We, Our) for Himself. This is common in Semitic language along with a number of other languages as well including those spoken in the Indian subcontinent as well as Far East. However, many westerners find this concept difficult to grasp and feel that the usage of plural pronouns by Allah refers to Trinity or other forms of polytheism. Such allegations are very common by those who know nothing of Semitic languages and find it difficult to appreciate the royalty behind such language.

This write-up not just includes details on the usage of pronouns of majesty but also refutes anti-Islamic claims. The anti-Islamic claims do become very silly and hence, if you feel they are needlessly time consuming or un-interesting, then go straight to the topics of choice from below."Plural pronouns in the Qur’an

 

[Helmut-WK]

Actually, the Quran employs it when Allah speaks. It goes further back before the 13th century...

The term plurale maiestatis came into existence long after the phenomenon was there. The Arabs has contact to Persians and Greeks, even some contact to Romans, and so had ample possibilities to borrow the plurale maiestatis.

 

[Helmut-WK]

"
In the Qur’an, as well as the Torah, the Almighty God uses plural pronouns (Us, We, Our) for Himself.

If Allah is One, Then Why Does He Refer to Himself with the Plural Pronoun, “We”? — Basira Education

The use of the pronoun “we” to connote divine majesty an ancient Arabian rhetorical devices that has fallen into disuse in both modern Arabic and modern English. This has led modern readers to misunderstand pronominal references to God using the majestic “we” as a Quranic justification for the Trini

www.basiraeducation.org

"To answer this question in more detail: the Qur’aan was revealed in the language of the Arabs, and in Arabic it is as correct to use the plural when speaking of one person as it is to use the singular.

This is plurale maiestatis. Arabic, like Hebrew, is a Semitic language, so one should not expect it there, but it has been borrowed from languages that already had one.

 

[Philip_B]

I take it that the explanation of the Royal Plural "plurale maiestatis" injects something that was not there at the time it was written. Indeed, in the matter of Genesis 1:26, it is reasonable to conclude that the scribe/authors were seeking to preserve the people's stories, especially their stories of origin. As Genesis recounts the tale, Abraham came for Ur of the Chaldees and one presumes that part of what he brought with him were the stories with which he grew up. The Ugaritic Texts, including the Epic of Gilgamesh, are by and large polytheistic, as against Genesis, and indeed the Quran, so it is possible that the plural here, and there, is simply something that has passed through and been accepted. It may not be tidy, but that is part of what makes it real, and authentic.