Clare73
Blood-bought
- Jun 12, 2012
- 25,096
- 6,100
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Republican
So you are rejecting Paul in Ephesians 2:8-9?Clare73 said: It is not faith's works which save/justify, it is only the faith which saves/justifies, apart from faith's works.
So long as any Christian says only faith justifies, and justification is apart from works, then they are rejecting three Scriptures:
Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
'Faith only' must say no, because that would be boasting.
"For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith. . .not by works, so that no one can boast."
See 1 Corinthians 1:29.
And you are rejecting Paul in Romans 3:28?
". . .a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law (works).
However, that would be the apostle saying "no" in Romans 3:28, above.Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
'Faith only' must say no, because only by faith are we justified.
Previously addressed in the two meanings of "justify," one used by Paul, the other by James.Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works.
Contrare. . .Faith only' must say she justified by works, because we are only justified by faith.
The doctrine of justification of Christ is neither by faith only nor by works only: Christians are imputed righteousness by faith inwardly and justified by works of faith outwardly."
Scripture speaks of imputed righteousness of faith, not of imputed justification by faith.
Trying to equate imputed righteousness of God by faith and justification of God without works is false.
The Greek definition of justified is: "declared righteous, pronounced "not guilty."
You are setting Paul and James against each other, and preferring James.The fundamental error of trusting in Scriptures of Paul but not in Scriptures of James,
Previously addressed in explanation of:is because they see a faith-only doctrine of Paul the apostle,
"faith, apart from works" means "faith, apart from faith's works," not a workless counterfeit faith.
And the reason Paul was so emphatic about their separation was likewise demonstrated.
who was formerly Saul of Tarsus who excelled in the Jews religion and was blameless in their law, and was wholeheartedly consenting unto the death of Jesus and of Stephen: he did all without the faith of God.
And so Paul the apostle was the perfect instrument of correction to rebuke all works without faith, whether of the law or of righteousness.
The fundamental error of the Jews was trusting in the flesh only, and rejecting faith as necessary to inherit the promises made to the fathers: so long as the matters of the flesh in birth, circumcision, and the law were kept, then they would inherit the promises of God, whether they believed in it from the heart or not.
Paul was correcting Israel after the flesh, and James was correcting Christians of faith only.
The opposing extremism of trusting in the works of the flesh only, without need of faith, is trusting in faith only without need of works in the flesh.
Holy Toledo! . . .the only "problem" with that is the text states exactly the opposite:And so, when reading all the Scriptures of Paul pertaining to justification and works, it is necessary to understand He is only speaking of "justification by works apart from faith, not of justification by faith apart from works.
Romans 3:28: "A man is justified by faith apart from the law (works)."
C'mon, guy!
And your solution is to put Paul in contradiction of himself?Otherwise, Scriptures of Paul and of James are in fact contradicting one another,
Okay, Clare73 "don't play like dat!"
This crosses the line with me.
We have no basis for discussion as long as you completely deny plain and simple text.
When you're ready to sort it all out, let me know.
Last edited:
Upvote
0