there must be factions among you in order that those who are genuine among you may be recognized. 1 Cor 11:19
John answered, "Master, we saw someone casting out demons in your name, and we tried to stop him, because he does not follow with us." But Jesus said to him, "Do not stop him, for the one who is not against you is for you." Lk 9:49-50
So you prove that division is sinful. From the OT, those that sow discord among brethren are an abomination to God.
heymickey said:
Btw, "faith alone" is in a specific sense, not in all senses:
[Faith] is not alone in the person justified, but is ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but works by love. Westminster Confession, 11.2
The constant aberration of the phrase "faith alone" would be as absurd as applying "the church alone" to the corporate world. Or to your family.
THe phrase "faith alone" means a faith without works which James plainly says such a faith is dead.
heymickey said:
Show me where righteousness is a result of obedience here? You assert it, but I'm missing it.
In Rom 6 Paul says "obedience unto righteousness". John says he that DOETH righteousness (obeying) is righteous.
heymickey said:
ROFL! You don't hold a candle to the Jewish people's actual practicing of the commandments of God, even at this stage in history. "For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven." Mt 5:19
You don't understand what Paul is saying in Rom 10:3. Fleshly Israel was lost because they had not submitted (obeyed) the righteousness(commandments) of God.
Paul is saying they are lost because they have not obeyed the gospel, verse 16. Paul is not talking about Israel submitting themsleves to the OT laws here.
heymickey said:
Then why did the Apostle say rest? "Therefore, while the promise of entering his rest still stands, let us fear lest any of you should seem to have failed to reach it." Heb 4:1
It requires obedience to enter into rest (heaven). Doing nothing will not get one into this rest. This verse plainly shows that savlation can be lost.
heymickey said:
"There must be divisions among you" 1 Cor 11:19a That statement is not a condemnation. It's either an imperitive or a declaration. "in order that those who are approved among you may be recognized." 1 Cor 11:19b The divisions exist so you can learn to recognize those approved. With no division there is no discernment.
Of course someone can be in error and still be saved. Wouldn't you say sin is an error? Everyone who's saved is a sinner, too.
You say "one can be in error and still be saved" Amazing what the false teaching OSAS can cause people to believe. 2 Pet 2:1 false teachers bring in "damnable heresies" and people can believe "damnable heresies" and still be saved? No, it brings damnation not salvation.. Gal 1:8 anyone preaches error ie "another gospeL' let him be accursed. If one can be saved in error, then it makes no difference what one preaches, "another gospel" or not.
You say "everyone's who's saved is a sinner, too". Everyone is a sinner for all have sinned, but one cannot remain a sinner and enter heaven, he has to obey the gospel and have his sins remitted.
heymickey said:
"While we were still sinners, Christ died for us." Rom 5:8
"... God came to rescue sinners, of whom I am the first." Paul, 1 Tim 1:15
Are you saying Paul wasn't saved?
Paul was saved because he was obedient. Christ died for all, but all will not be saved. Therefore there must be a factor that separates the saved from the lost and that factor is obedience to God's will.
heymickey said:
Translators translate the sense of words. They don't translate every attribute of the original language. It's wrong to assume they do. It's wrong to attribute to translators something that they didn't intend to do.
For example: far, far fewer translations put "if" in Heb 6:6. I believe KJV, NKJV does?
The Greek doesn't have it. Stephanus doesn't have it. Westcott-Hort doesn't have it. Are you saying your theology relies on 17-20th C. English translators instead of what the Apostles actually wrote?
You're "explanation" here fails miserably. "If" is an appropriate translation.
Go to blueletterbible.com and look up 2 Pet 2:10 and click on the letter "c" by the verse. Not falling is dependant upon 'doing these things'. This implies not doing these things can cause one to fall, hence "if" is correctly rendered here. "If ye do" is present tense which shows the 'doing' must be ongoing and sustained and if one quits 'doing' he can fall. "Ye shall never fall" is in the subjunctive mood, which shows one may or may not fall depending upon whether he does these things.
Absolutely nothing in this verse says salvation is a guarantee, the verse plainly shows otherwise.
heymickey said:
But falling into sin isn't falling out of salvation.
No, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him who loved us. For I am sure that neither death nor life, nor angels nor rulers, nor things present nor things to come, nor powers, nor height nor depth, nor anything else in all creation, will be able to separate us from the love of God in Christ Jesus our Lord. Rom 8:37-39
Another amazing statement, so you say sin will not cause one to be lost. What then will cause one to be lost if not sin?
Rom 8 says nothing about the individual removing himself from God by sinning. Jude commands to keep yourselves in the love of God. This makes no sense if it is impossible to fall out of God's love. John 15;9,10 says those who keep His commandmetns are in His love. So one keeps himself in God's love by keeping His commandments. One falls from God's love by stop keeping His commandments.
heymickey said:
Subjunctives refer to the conditions in the context when they exist.
2 Pet 2:10 shall never fall is in the subjunctive mood. The subjunctive mood shows potential or possiblity that the action described may or may not occur depending upon the circumstances. So not falling is dependant upon doing or not doing these things. Again, absolutely nothing in this verse says savlation is a guarantee, it teaches the opposite.
heymickey said:
Oh, and another point: the translation you're using, "shall", conflicts with your accurate point that this is a subjunctive mood. Your translators are contradicting you. KJV, NKJV, ASV, RSV use "shall". So you've confirmed my point above.
"ye shall never fall" is in the subjunctive mood, this does not show falling is impossible, but rather shows that fall is very much possible.
heymickey said:
For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness." Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness Rom 4:2-5
"not of works" -- see prior response.
The "works" in the context of Rom 3 and 4 is speaking about the OT work of circumcision, not NT obedience. James plainly says Abraham was justified by his obedience.
Eph 2:8----faith>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saved
Eph 5:26--washing of water>>>>>>>cleansed
Saved and cleansed are the same thing, they are equal. Since there is but one way to be saved, both verses MUST say the same thing, so we can see that the Ephesians faith inluded washing of water, ie, baptism, ie obedience. Not of works in verse 9 refers to works of merit not obedience as just proven.
heymickey said:
The command is to quit working for your salvation. How do you obey such a command by performing works like baptism as a requirement?
Works of Eph 2:9 are works of merit not NT obedience. I just harmonized verses between Eph 2:8 and Eph 5:26 showing that the Ephesians faith inlculded obedience. The bible shows that all works are not the same, and Eph 2:9 does not say
all kinds of works.
heymickey said:
These are simply allusions to try to get Scripture to say something ... that it doesn't say, and that it actually contradicts explicitly in the same letters (Rom 4:1-5, 3:21-31, 1 John 1:8-10). Certainly Paul and John weren't writing incoherently in each letter? No. Your theology must comply with Scripture, not pick one idea you can plug into 3 verses, at the expense of all the rest of what Scripture says.
ALLUSIONS?!?!?!?!?
You see what you only want to see is more like it!!!
He that DOETH righteousness is righteous. Anyone that cannot understand this simple statement just does not want to understand it. What about this statement is an "allusion"? NOWHERE in Romans did Paul ever say obedience is not necessary to salvation. In fact he taught the opposite. In Rom 4:1-5, you take out of context, the works here are works of the OT law (circumcision), not NT obedience. Rom 3 refers to works of the OT law, not NT obedience. 1 Jn 1:9 says we must confess, confessing is a form of obedience.
heymickey said:
It's clear John says we all sin and we all must own our sins. As sin is not doing righteousness, either John is talking incoherently or he means something specific about associating righteous acts with righteousness. And it's not what you've said.
John said "he that doeth righteousness is righteous". A very plain statement that some just do not want to understand.
Doing righteousness is the only thing that makes one righteous. John certainly did not saying "doing nothing" makes one righteous or "faith alone" makes one righteous. Abel was rightreous because his works were. John the baptizer's parents were righteous [Lk 1:6] because they obeyed God, they walked (obeyed) in all the commandmets and statutes of the Lord.
heymickey said:
Sorry, that's a logical misstep in your argument. The contrapositive is the true reverse assertion -- not the double-contrary.
And your stretching it to salvation is not even what Peter said.
1 Jn 3:7 "he that doeth" is in the present tense, active voice. Thus doing righteousness must be ongoing, active thing. It is not a "logical misstep" -look it up yourself.
heymickey said:
Then by your view we have nothing left, because John plainly shows we all sin (1 Jn 1:8). By your view, we're dead.
We are all sinners because we all sin, John did not say we cannot be saved. 1 Jn 1:9 John says ""IF"" we confess our sins Christ will forgive. Again, receiving forgiveness is dependant upon one obeying by confessing. Because people are sinners does not mean thay cannot confess their sins and get forgiveness. In Verse 7 John says ""BUT IF" we walk in the Light, the blood of Jesus cleanseth us from all sin. Again walking in the light is obedience and is in the present tense, subjunctive mood, so if one stops walking in the light his sins will stop being cleansed.
heyickey said:
But I'm alive, because I know that John is talking about how to identify people who are righteous -- not about how righteousness is caused.
Of course righteous acts show (witness) your righteousness. But obedience doesn't cause righteousness.
This is NOT what John said. You try and make him say the opposite of what he did say!!!
He said "HE THAT DOETH RIGHTEOUSNESS IS RIGHTEOUS." He said nothing about "witness" and he did say
doeth righteousness which is
obedience make one righteous.
heymickey said:
You're denying Paul said "obedience unto righteousness"???
heymickey said:
It plainly takes a change of heart to obey. It also takes a change of heart to be declared righteous. They're associated. They're not causal.
Regardless of what you say, the bible makes it clear that obedience is what makes one righteous. No verse says "do nothing and thou shalt be righteous".