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If you do not know what the shadows are how can you know what is eternal?
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He used the OT to proclaim Jesus, not to proclaim the OT itself. The OT merely points to Jesus. We are to live in the reality, not the shadows.
It appeared before that as 7 laws in the Tosefta, circa late 2nd century. The whole concept didn't just magically appear, but was developed over centuries. In the 1st century it contained 4 laws as evidenced by Acts 15.
The Jewish Encyclopedia states that the decree of the Acts 15 council were Noahide laws. I don't think they would make that statement without evidence.
Do we need more scripture?
If you do not know what the shadows are how can you know what is eternal?
What I need for you to do is not paste big walls of text (which I don't even read). Verse references are sufficient as I can mouseover them and see what they say in a pop-up.
You can't understand a shadow or type until you understand the reality or antitype that those things point to.
You still just shot your own point down because you said that the Acts 15 letter was about bringing gentiles into the Noachide laws.
What you don't even realize is that beyond the 2nd century being long after Paul's death and the Acts 15 letter... that the Noachide laws were created as a REACTION to Christianity by zealots who, like us... didn't want to look like the other. So, Noahide laws, a rabbinic creation (not a God creation) designed to keep people who aren't Jewish out of covenant.
Early in the church, we began to pass decrees to make us appear less Jewish.
And what, they sent out the Torah police to see if they strangled their dinner the night before? A pagan (a follower of say Mithras) hears the word and is convicted. They determine to repent and turn toward their new (and true) God. What do they do NOW? How do they act? Well, the Acts 15 counsel suggested the same four things Hillel did 50 years earlier but Hillel said.... "they will then hear the Torah read and learn what else is expected of them." What did the Acts 15 letter do? THE SAME EXACT THING because when you go read 15:21, which comes right on the heals of what they agreed to write... it says "For Moses (the Torah, the LAW) has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath." Why would they throw that in? Because that is the same thing Hillel said... do these 4 because these 4 will be enough for NOW to differentiate you from your pagan background... and then go learn the rest. This is Paul's point here:No I didn't say that. They were already observing those 4 laws that James mentioned, because James didn't just make them up; he knew what they were. Gentiles were not allowed in synagogues without observing them.
Not really. You cannot have the anti-type before the shadow or type.
Post # 259 is all mouseover fixed for you....
Now you're up to the 3rd century? You went from the Acts 15 letter taking gentiles to the Noachide laws before 70AD to the 3rd century. Like I said, you make things up or find ANYTHING that supports your view in order to be correct. Well, I am done... I will not respond again. Sorry... I just don't want to remain caught up in an unedifying debate that does not exude the fruits of the Spirit. Be blessed.The Jewish Encyclopedia disagrees with you. Laws for proselytes (laws of Noah) existed well before the 3rd century, when you say they were created to exclude gentiles.
And what, they sent out the Torah police to see if they strangled their dinner the night before? A pagan (a follower of say Mithras) hears the word and is convicted. They determine to repent and turn toward their new (and true) God. What do they do NOW? How do they act? Well, the Acts 15 counsel suggested the same four things Hillel did 50 years earlier but Hillel said.... "they will then hear the Torah read and learn what else is expected of them." What did the Acts 15 letter do? THE SAME EXACT THING because when you go read 15:21, which comes right on the heals of what they agreed to write... it says "For Moses (the Torah, the LAW) has had throughout many generations those who preach him in every city, being read in the synagogues every Sabbath." Why would they throw that in? Because that is the same thing Hillel said... do these 4 because these 4 will be enough for NOW to differentiate you from your pagan background... and then go learn the rest. This is Paul's point here:
2 Tim 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
What was Scripture TO PAUL in his day? Not his own letters, he was merely addressing issues in places he had been or was going to. Scripture to Paul was the Torah and the Prophets and like Yeshua (Jesus) he was telling us to use them to develop doctrine, correct others... learn how to walk in righteousness. Do these 4 things and then go learn the rest. That is consistent with even our walk today. We learn very little at first, not much is expected of us at first, but we are expected to learn and grow over time and as we do... our walk will include more and more things from God's word.
If you see it another way, fine. But I am done here... be blessed.
Now you're up to the 3rd century? You went from the Acts 15 letter taking gentiles to the Noachide laws before 70AD to the 3rd century. Like I said, you make things up or find ANYTHING that supports your view in order to be correct. Well, I am done... I will not respond again. Sorry... I just don't want to remain caught up in an unedifying debate that does not exude the fruits of the Spirit. Be blessed.
Paul didn't teach that all food was clean... what are you going to quote, 1 Timothy 4?I agree with this except for the part that the 4 laws were to learn righteousness. That was the Jewish perspective, which is irrelevant to the faith. That wasn't the teaching of Paul who taught that all food was clean, which contradicts 75% of the Acts 15:20 rules. Yet he submitted to their observance to keep the troublemakers at bay (i.e., pharisees who demanded that believing gentiles observe the law of Moses).
Now you're up to the 3rd century? You went from the Acts 15 letter taking gentiles to the Noachide laws before 70AD to the 3rd century. Like I said, you make things up or find ANYTHING that supports your view in order to be correct. Well, I am done... I will not respond again. Sorry... I just don't want to remain caught up in an unedifying debate that does not exude the fruits of the Spirit. Be blessed.
Paul didn't teach that all food was clean... what are you going to quote, 1 Timothy 4?
Paul never taught “all food” is clean. Your posts are full of errors. You show over and over that you don’t understand Paul.I agree with this except for the part that the 4 laws were to learn righteousness. That was the Jewish perspective, which is irrelevant to the faith. That wasn't the teaching of Paul who taught that all food was clean, which contradicts 75% of the Acts 15:20 rules. Yet he submitted to their observance to keep the troublemakers at bay (i.e., pharisees who demanded that believing gentiles observe the law of Moses).
Paul never taught “all food” is clean. Your posts are full of errors. You show over and over that you don’t understand Paul.
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