Once again, how did the chief priest know there was no body in the sepulcher after the guards “shewed unto the chief priests all the things that were done” if the guards did not look? I have asked this question multiple times and you have failed to address it.
I don't have an answer that you'll like. It seems clear to me that the legend of Jesus grew a few decades after he died, and in the Matthew circle people were asking certain details about the resurrection story, which is why the author of Matthew is the only one to invent the guards.
Regardless, your sequence of events seems to be this:
1. The guards are guarding
2. Angel(s) appear
3. The guards are so terrified that they are "like dead men"
4a. The angel(s) temporarily leave(s) (?????) so the guards, who are still terrified, can look inside and make a report
4b. The angel(s) remain(s) but the guards, who are still terrified, inexplicably push their way past the angel(s) to look inside and make a report
5. The women show up later, the angel(s) is/are there, the guards seem to be long gone
So please, take the time to read the four accounts of the resurrection and tell me whether you think it's 4a or 4b, and explain how on earth either of them makes any sense. Because as far as I can see, even in a world where angels exist and slaughtering animals is the logical remedy for wrongdoing, neither 4a or 4b make any sense at all. Oh and just one more thing... you have no evidence for either one.
Well then let me show you:


So let's see. My argument is a slippery-slope fallacy because why? You define it as one event meaning that another MUST happen. But what did I actually say? I said that because a certain event didn't follow another, it's EVIDENCE that the other event didn't occur in the first place. This is not even a claim of proof, it is not a claim of fact, it is simply saying that there is a piece of evidence against the resurrection claim. News flash: there is evidence FOR and AGAINST the resurrection. I am citing evidence AGAINST it. It's a solid argument: if there was no real investigation (and no, there wasn't - at least not one that was recorded - unless you can pick between 4a or 4b above), then that is EVIDENCE that nothing of interest occurred.
In any case, you claim that my argument employs a slippery slope fallacy because I am saying that X produces evidence for Y. Meanwhile, you say that N produces evidence for M, and yet it is not a slippery slope fallacy.
I think that your vicious statements earlier, combined with your intellectual dishonesty and your inability to admit being wrong, makes you a bad witness for your Lord. Where's the humility when you are shown to be wrong? I'm a proud atheist and yet I am more humble.
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