Then thank you for an honest answer. Here I have posts #2 and 3 reproduced, which answer your question in full:
Notedstrangeperson was mistaken in her summary of the OP, and I corrected her in post #60. Strathos' remark, accurate or not, answers the OP with a 'no' - as has everyone else.
Now to develop the premise of your OP further:
Are you really completely unaware that all the early pioneers of science attributed their great discoveries to God Himself?
No, as evidenced by the fact that I specifically mentioned them in the OP. And to clarify, they didn't attribute their discoveries to God himself - they didn't claim that God literally beamed the knowledge into their heads, or poofed the theory into their laps. They gesticulated towards God as the creator of their ability to think rationally and logically, and
thus were able to do science (or, at least, proto-science). And that's the point: the knowledge acquired by Newton was done through logic, reason, and empiricism. Even though he attributed his ability to do those things to God, it is still through
those means (and not religious means like revelation or prophecy) that he expanded the human sphere of knowledge.
I just don't see how that's possible. They credited Him with their ability to reason, motivating them to work, etc etc. Even Obama's controversial statement "you didn't build that," they honored God with the cumulative achievement of society, making their own work possible.
Indeed; your objections are almost identical to those posed by Notedstrangeperson, so for fear of repeating myself I can only refer you to post #60 where I clarified the distinction between religious
motivation and religious
method (the latter being what the OP asks for).
The whole point of this thread is whether the claims of knowledge acquired through divine revelation, or angelic message, or oracular prophecy, or occult divination, etc, are actually true or not. That some scientists (particularly in centuries gone by) were motivated by their religious faith, is irrelevant.
Before I resume lurking, let me just point out that you might consider that Divine revelation focuses on knowledge that is not primarily scientific in nature. Doesn't that seem plausible?
Naturally, and I've gone to lengths to acknowledge that possibility - I've never said divine revelations (or other religious acquisitions of knowledge) never happen, but that such knowledge is quite difficult to verify.
I've given several examples, including God using divine revelation to beam the knowledge of a cure for HIV/AIDS into the head of a layman (such knowledge being religiously-acquired knowledge), and then science being used to verify that the alleged cure does indeed work (making the knowledge both religiously-acquired and scientific).
The OP merely asks if such knowledge has ever been acquired through religious means. The theological implications of a deity who refuses to reveal the cure for disease and illness are for another thread altogether.