First of all, I'd like to say hi to everybody, as I'm new here. I've been reading these boards for some time now, but only now have I chosen to post on them.
Since I've started reading the boards I've seen a number of members alluding to a hypothesis that can roughly be defined as the "different past." Generally speaking, this means that physical and environmental conditions immediately before and/or after the Fall and Flood allowed for some of the processes Creationists use to explain some of the evidence (hyper-adaptation to explain speciation following the Flood, etc.)
My question is: why do we need such an explanation? Maybe I'm missing something here, but to me the "different past" hypothesis just isn't parsimonious. Why do we need to invoke different physical laws for the past, when the ones we have currently work just fine - providing, of course, that we accept the evidence for an old Earth as it is?
My own feeling is that Creationists are trying to explain away the evidence by coming up with something that is even more improbable, and even less supported by evidence than the theories they are trying to undermine. But perhaps I'm wrong: perhaps someone can put me right on this, because at the moment I just don't see the logic.
Since I've started reading the boards I've seen a number of members alluding to a hypothesis that can roughly be defined as the "different past." Generally speaking, this means that physical and environmental conditions immediately before and/or after the Fall and Flood allowed for some of the processes Creationists use to explain some of the evidence (hyper-adaptation to explain speciation following the Flood, etc.)
My question is: why do we need such an explanation? Maybe I'm missing something here, but to me the "different past" hypothesis just isn't parsimonious. Why do we need to invoke different physical laws for the past, when the ones we have currently work just fine - providing, of course, that we accept the evidence for an old Earth as it is?
My own feeling is that Creationists are trying to explain away the evidence by coming up with something that is even more improbable, and even less supported by evidence than the theories they are trying to undermine. But perhaps I'm wrong: perhaps someone can put me right on this, because at the moment I just don't see the logic.