Healed_IHS
Senior Member
- May 5, 2007
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To ProdigalSeeker,
I have no intention of trading research statements with you in the light of the truth of Gods word. You will only say you dont agree with the ones I provide and I will no doubt disagree with the ones you provide.
Here is one just for the record APA revises 'gay gene' theory (OneNewsNow.com)
This comes from an obviously biased source. By the APA's own words, it is unrealistic and harmful to tell gay people they can change their orientation... though I have a feeling I am unable to persuade you to read the article as you don't consider it God's word and, by extention, insist that God stopped speaking to us if it came after the Bible was compiled. Further, by refusing to look at the context in which the books of the Bible were written you are saying in essence I only care about what the Bible says who, what, where, when have no relevancy. This is a way to substitute our intentions for the original writers.
As I said God spoke creation into being, just how I am not interested this is a Christian section of the forum not a science one.
Ok. You won't be able to convince me the secular isn't related to the religious, but ok.
So why did you say one cant expect someone to change if their sexuality is hardwired? Are you now withdrawing that line of argument?
No, that is not what I said. What I said is not all temptations is harmful. Temptations can be innate and yet not harmful.
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f you are saying the criteria is harm then thats subjective according to different people but the NT teaching shows sexual immorality is a sin against ones own body.
Well sorry but to me its obvious you are absolutely not taking any notice of the Bible as each Biblical reference I cite and refer to you contradict with one of your own ideas or some disputed scientific theory.
Yes, and you keep saying it is written in the Bible, and the Bible is infallible, therefore it is God as only God is infallible, ergo if it was written in the Bible it must be right. This is circular reasoning.
No its not vague at all 1 Corinthians 6 just earlier in the chapter says 9Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders 10nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
So anyone who uses a sex toy in marriage is going to hell for sexual immorality? Masturbators go to hell, phone sex operators are going to hell? Damn. Heaven is going to be empty, it will just be you and Jerry Falwell.
On the contrary you see the word of God says not to lean on human experience and understanding but trust God and His word.1 Cor 3, the wisdom of the world is foolisheness to God. And anyway I dont agree with what you are claiming about human experiecne either. Furthermore if you think the NT says its ok to own slaves you will need to show me chapter and verse.
If it was important for Jesus to preach against the practice of owning slaves, dont you think it would be written? Show me the place where it is spoken against. As you are relying on scripture to be the sole authority, the responsibility is yours to provide biblical proof.
My view is that the word of God makes sense its quite obvious that there are two sexes in the human species for sexual reproduction and a one sex union isnt possible, its just sexual gratification and dysfunction.
So now you are saying sex without procreation = using a condom, is going to lead people into hell as it is just for sexual gratification?
Well no lets not until you understand my question to you. The definition of gay in a sexual connotation means having a same sex attraction and as God created man and woman to be united and condemns same sex sexual relationships gay is really only a sexually immoral desire or act. Its a concept that is excluded and condemned.
Jesus never said anything that wasnt written down by men, neither Matthew, Mark Luke or John or Paul. Paul received his revelation not from man but from the risen Lord Jesus. So your statement doesnt seem to have grasped some basics.
Again, you need to provide proof for your claims. Jesus must have not spoken that much from the time of His ministry beginning at Cana to the crucifixion, considering His words only appear in the four gospels, Acts, and Revelations. And yet, Jesus never speaks out against homosexuality? Unless of course you are equating homosexuality = immorality = use of sex toys in marriage. In which case, wow.
If you dont think He was speaking to modern day people about what God had created in the beginning and then instructed disciples to pass on all He had taught, I cant see what relevance the Biblical Testimony of Jesus Christ has for you.
If you think that context doesnt change anything let me state this: If someone takes a time travel machine from 1st century Jerusalem to my house, and I tell them someone is in left field with their ideas, they are going to be looking for a literal left field.
Just like the Bible isn't against women preachers. Paul was writing against the practice of women participating temple prostitution in Ephesus and Corinith. Just as the words would be relevant if temple prostitution would be relevant to me today in my hometown if this practice was occuring here. It isn't happening here = it isn't relevant = not everything in the Bible is necessary for my salvation, yet everything necessary for salvation is in the Bible, i.e - loving God and my neighbor.
Time changes things. It is a good book. It isnt the good book. Reading the Bible isnt the most important thing for being a Christian. If it was the first few centuries of Christians would be irrelevant. I am not saved by the Bible. I am saved by the Trinity.
Let me stop you there, there is no concept of gay in Gods word so you cant use it until you have established there is. Gay means having a same sex attraction, a couple of people who have same sex attraction and are thus gay could be a man and a woman.
Actually, you are the one saying that there is no concept of gay in Gods word, then saying that Gods word is the Bible, then saying that the Bible rebukes homosexuality. Therefore, by your own words you are saying there is the concept of gay in Gods word and it is rebuked. Why are you still saying there is no concept?
Yes but this is the word of God against cultural deviances.
Absolutely, God's word preaches against deviancy, such as the oppresive nature of irrumatio and temple prositution.
Look, I have spent over an hour working on this one response which (going on your responses) you are just going to reply to by contradicting your own words (such as no concept of gay, yet gay is condemned). As fun as it has been, there is a better use for my time.
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