twhite982 said:
Actually, what I have done is to show the 2 articles were voted on seperate from the revelations given to Joseph Smith.
http://www.solomonspalding.com/docs/1835DnC2.htm#pg001
Look at the bottom of the page and see how those assembled voted on it.
I did and I think you are trying to make a distinction that is clearly not there. In the paragraph before Cowdery reads the article on marriage, there is no mention of approving revelations. Just approval of the book. They further go on to approve the final two articles to be included in the book.
This is why the "preface" is so important because it was written and attested to after the events I just referred to. As Smith was one of the signatures, he is attesting to the fact that all this came from revelations. That is exactly what it says. I make no assumptions here.
Your assumtion is duly noted, but incorrect.
Again, I made no assumptions, I have only used facts. Please tell me how I am wrong.
You would have me believe that the article on marriage / government was revelation given from the Lord to Joseph Smith to the church.
No, I wouldn't. It is Joseph SMith who is making that claim:
"The second part contains items or principles for the regulation of the church, as taken from the revelations which have been given since its organization, as well as from former ones."
Again, I only read what is written.
From the "evidence" you posted I have to also have your assumtions to hold to your "facts".
See above.
Is there any other evidence for these two articles as being revelations to Joseph Smith and not written in response to events by Oliver Cowdrey / WW Phelps?
If the statement from you own prophet will not serve as evidence, then I guess, no!
The church as a WHOLE, yes.
Please explain this one to me. Do you have doctines that are only meant for "PARTS" of your church? Is their a class system I am not aware of?
See above. Regulation does NOT equal revelation!
Come on Twhite, look at the words of your own prophet!!!!! Everything included was taken from revelation. His words, not mine.
See above. The two articles (marriage and government) were taken from the then revelations to the church as a whole.
So now they are coming from revelations? Twhite, make up your mind.
Polygamy was not given to the church as a whole, until 1852, by your own admitance.
So what other revelations were piece-mealed out for a select few to test drive first?

If, as some contend, it was ok for Smith to practice early on, what do you think changed between then and 1852 that made it ok for everyone else to practice?
You've haven't shown the two articles to be revelations from God.
No? Well you just said that where they came from. Smith said the same thing. If you and Smith can't convince you, I surely won't be able to!!!
By Joseph simply letting them stand does NOT indicate they are revelations. In fact as I stated earlier each and every link I bring up on the article of marriage shows Oliver Cowdrey as the author, but that may just be due to the fact that most links are pro-LDS.
Do me a favor, cite the original source that says Cowdery wrote it. Don't give me some apologists opinion, since you have read all these links, just give me the authoratative souce/cite for this claim. Does one really exist?
Either way there is NO proof to show Joseph being the author and his acceptance of the commitee's decision is NOT proof.
Twhite, you can lead a horse to water, but you can't make it read!

The proof is the statement from your own prophet.
The purpose of the commitee was to change the name of the book of commandemnts and compile those regulations for the church.
Source please.
It is a clear fact Joseph was NOT present during said gathering, but he did allow its compilations to stand "as-is".
If he has written testament to its approval, what is your point?
Again elements of eternal marriage were given to Joseph as early as 1831, but were not ready for the church as a whole.
What is you source/evidence that 'elements were given as early as 1831'?
Additionally as I look throught the church's history even after 1852, the "authorization" to engage in polygamy was NOT practiced by the church as a whole and around 15-20% were enganged in it.
Your point here being.......?
It says marriage.
You and I both know there is NO way to distinguish between a sealing and a marriage upon those records.
You would want everyone to believe that just because it says marriage on the familysearch web site this was an earthly solemnized marriage, but that is stretching it too far.
Twhite, this is lds rationalization at it's best. Your own church source states it as marriage and now you want me to prove that it is not something else. Should we assume this every time your church states it as a marriage. Come on now!
The idea is to seal families together as you well know.
There were several women, who were sealed to Joseph Smith, even after his death.
What else do you conclude from this?
Your theory of adultery is a little tough to swallow, especially with Joseph being dead.
The point of my question deals with the need to have polygamy at all. What did Smith accomplish through his practice of this, if it was strickly spiritual, that could not have been accomplished through monogamy.
Then, if "raising seed" is the reason for polygamy, why is it not appropriate to conclude that Smith did not have physical realtions with these women. If he had these realtions, why is it not proper to describe it as adultery?