More personal speculation I assume, seeing that you have no support for such claim. Am I correct?fatboys said:Jewish rites were of the lower laws.
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More personal speculation I assume, seeing that you have no support for such claim. Am I correct?fatboys said:Jewish rites were of the lower laws.
skylark1 said:You objected to the translation of the Greek word sarx as external. Following is Strong's outline of Biblical usage for sarx:1) flesh (the soft substance of the living body, which covers the bones and is permeated with blood) of both man and beastsClearly sarx=flesh. The flesh is extenal, as opposed to the spirit being internal. The KJV translates sarx as carnal in this passage.
2) the body
a) the body of a man
b) used of natural or physical origin, generation or relationship
1) born of natural generation
c) the sensuous nature of man, "the animal nature"
1) without any suggestion of depravity
2) the animal nature with cravings which incite to sin
3) the physical nature of man as subject to suffering
3) a living creature (because possessed of a body of flesh) whether man or beast
4) the flesh, denotes mere human nature, the earthly nature of man apart from divine influence, and therefore prone to sin and opposed to God
baker said:Well so far, other than Twhite's comment about the temple sealing requirements originating with D&C 132, it seems like the support for a "requirement of temple ceremony", being of God, really seems to be mostly of speculation of what the bible "doesn't say" as opposed to any actual scriptural support.
baker said:I think Skylark has made some very good points about what scriptures we do have and what they are actually saying.
baker said:But let me throw this out for consideration before getting into the actual lds church history on this claim:
Since all of this temple history originates with and is documented in jewish history, why don't we see the jewish faith practising the similar ceremonies. I mean isn't it reasonable to think, that if this is what was really practiced in the temple that Solomon built, we would see much more of this being practiced within the jewish faith. Why do they not practice these "restricted ceremonies" with respect to marriage and endowments? If they ever did, when did they abandone such practices? If they never participated in such practices, how do lds rationalize these practices originating from the jewish temple?
Doc T said:Thank you for posting Strong's definations. I was aware of them, but others here may not have been. It was because of this that I "objected" to the translation of "external" as I do not see that usage among Strong's list. But perhaps it is because I am thinking of a different understanding of the word "external". Perhaps I can ask a question to clairify. Would you consider baptism to be an "external" ordinance? If so, then we are probably on the same page.
Doc
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skylark1 said:I agree. Baptism is an external (physical) symbol of a spiritual (inward) reality.
rnmomof7 said:It is an outward sign of an inside change. Unnecessary for salvation, it is a testimony to what has already occurred.
I believe to Mormons it is a necessary ordinance for exhaultation
Doc T said:The anointing of a person or object with sacred ointment represents sanctification (Lev. 8:10-12) and consecration (Ex. 28:41), so that both become "most holy" (Ex. 30:29) unto the Lord. In this manner, profane persons and things are sanctified in similitude of the messiah (Hebrew "anointed one"), who is Christ (Greek "anointed one").
"The New Testament identifies Christ as the great High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, but says nothing more on the subject."The New Testament identifies Christ as the great High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, but says nothing more on the subject. Were there other high priests after this order? It seems obvious that Melchizedek was one, at least, and it is called an "order," after all. Theophilus of Antioch taught that Melchizedek was the first of many priests of his order:
And at that time there was a righteous king called Melchisedek, in the city of Salem, which now is Jerusalem. This was the first priest of all priests of the Most High God; and from him the above-named city Hierosolyma was called Jerusalem. And from his time priests were found in all the earth.Both Ignatius and Hippolytus called bishops "high priests": "And say I, Honour thou God indeed, as the Author and Lord of all things, but the bishop as the high-priest, who bears the image of God -- of God, inasmuch as he is a ruler, and of Christ, in his capacity of a priest." "Grant unto this Thy servant whom Thou has chosen for the episcopate to feed Thy holy flock and serve as Thine high priest . . . ." Clement of Alexandria called each man who had been entrusted with the mysteries of God a "truly kingly man; he is the sacred high priest of God." Likewise, the Didache referred to prophets and Apostles, as "high priests." "Every first-fruit, therefore, of the products of wine-press and threshing-floor, of oxen and of sheep, thou shalt take and give to the prophets, for they are your high priests." [Barry Bickmore, "Restoring the Ancient Church"]
The book of Hebrews indicates that any man who is made a priest after the order of Melchizedek can do the following:
Doc T said:Correct, not necessary for salvation, but we believe that keeping all of God's commands are necessary for returning and living with him and receiving all the blessings in store for those who overcome. (exaltation)
Doc
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skylark1 said:[/i]
This statement raises an obvious question. If only those who are "worthy" are allowed into an LDS temple, then why does this speak of "profane persons" sanctified through annointings in an LDS temple? This is a serious question.
skylark1 said:This statement raises an obvious question. If only those who are "worthy" are allowed into an LDS temple, then why does this speak of "profane persons" sanctified through annointings in an LDS temple? This is a serious question.
rnmomof7 said:But then EVERY one is saved by LDS theology except Lucifer and his demons that go into the pit .
skylark1 said:I wasn't implying that LDS find themselves to be temple worthy without the Lord. My point was if LDS who participate in temple annointings consider themselves worthy, why did the quotation speak of them as profane? I hope that made more sense.
What do you believe makes us perfect in the eyes of God?arizona_sunshine said:I didnt think you were implying anything, I know you were asking an honest question. All I am saying is that those who are 'temple worthy' in their own eyes / the eyes of the 'church' may still be 'profane' / 'imperfect' in the eyes of God. Temple worthiness does not mean 'calling and election is sure.'
skylark1 said:This statement raises an obvious question. If only those who are "worthy" are allowed into an LDS temple, then why does this speak of "profane persons" sanctified through annointings in an LDS temple? This is a serious question.
skylark1 said:"The New Testament identifies Christ as the great High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, but says nothing more on the subject."
Exactly. I guess that you have not found scriptual support for this statement that you made?
skylark1 said:What do you believe makes us perfect in the eyes of God?
skylark1 said:What do you believe makes us perfect in the eyes of God?
Doc T said:In other words, our efforts do not save us, but are still necessary to remain in the covenant.