The law is made "NOT" for the righteous!!!

[apenman]

1 Timothy 1:8-11, "We know that the law is good if one uses it properly. 9 We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, 10 for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers -- and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine 11 that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me." (NIV)


Above, Paul clearly states that "the law is made not for the righteous", but for the goats. Also:

Colossians 2:14, "having canceled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross." (NIV)

Concerning the law of Moses, Paul clearly states that Christ "took it away, nailing it to the cross". And:

1 Corinthians 9:21, "To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God's law but am under Christ's law), so as to win those not having the law." (NIV)

Paul also clearly states that he (we) are under Christ's law.


Now, I have noticed that some people seem to feel, by what I've seen them say, that parts of the law of Moses still apply, even under the new covenant, and I am wondering why?? It seems to me that this confusion, and it is confusion, comes from one verse in particular, that being:

Matthew 5:17-18, "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (NIV)

So, above Christ states that he has not come to abolish the law, but then Paul seems to completely contradict this statement:

Ephesians 2:14-15, "For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace" (NIV)

So, Christ states that he did not come to abolish the law, and then Paul states that "by abolishing in his flesh the law" which "appears" to be a direct contradiction.

So, given that "the law is made not for the righteous", and that it was nailed to the cross, and that we are now under Christ's law, what evidence is there that the law of Moses still applies in any way, shape, or form????

 

[seebs]

There are a lot of things in Levitcius which, if they still apply, make most middle-class Americans morally superior to people they would very much like to look down on. I think this is the basic argument for the Law of Moses.

You wanna see a watered down, "feel-good" gospel? Look for the one that says that we're better than everyone else.

 

[The_White]

Meh, my Mom's old principal used to say
"Rules are made for Fules"
and then when people at the school started mucking up to much he would add
"It seems we have some Fules so it's time to make some Rules"

If everyone was trustworth on the roads we wouldn't need
Speed limits
Traffic Cops
Seatbelt laws
Drunk driving laws
Parking laws
but they are not, so we do.
If everyone was fully good in life we wouldn't need God's forgiveness and laws, but we are not, so we do.

 

[fejao]

It could be suggested that not all laws in the bible are from God, some made by men i.e Moses.


7"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" 8Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. Matt. 19:7-8

Mmmmm Intresting verse.

They tie up heavy loads and put them on men's shoulders, but they themselves are not willing to lift a finger to move them. Matt. 23:4

Fejao x

 

[apenman]

It could be suggested that not all laws in the bible are from God, some made by men i.e Moses.


7"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" 8Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. Matt. 19:7-8

Mmmmm Intresting verse.

They tie up heavy loads and put them on men's shoulders, but they themselves are not willing to lift a finger to move them. Matt. 23:4

Fejao x

Sure, but the Biblical law given to Moses by God is the law that was nailed to the cross. Of course, anything that is nailed to the cross is only applicable to the sheep, not the goats. That is to say, what has the cross got to do with the goats?? The answer is, nothing! So, the law of Moses is only abolished as far as the sheep are concerned, so both Christ and Paul are correct, and there is no contradiction in what I stated above.

So, the law of Moses was abolished as far as the sheep are concerned, but it was not abolished for the goats. So, "the law was made not for the righteous", stands. The law of Moses, which Pauls calls the law of sin and death is still applicable to the goats, but the law of Christ is applicable for the sheep.

So, everyone is judged by "the law that gives freedom", and those who fullfill that law, the sheep, are never judged by the law of sin and death, being the law of Moses. In James it states that "judgment without mercy will be shown to anyone who has not been merciful". So, what is judgment without mercy?? It is the full weight of the law of Moses coming down on the heads of the goats, an unforgiving law for those who did not forgive.

It is then the law of Christ that has been established for the righteous.

 

[fejao]

Sure, but the Biblical law given to Moses by God is the law that was nailed to the cross. Of course, anything that is nailed to the cross is only applicable to the sheep, not the goats. That is to say, what has the cross got to do with the goats?? The answer is, nothing! So, the law of Moses is only abolished as far as the sheep are concerned, so both Christ and Paul are correct, and there is no contradiction in what I stated above.

So, the law of Moses was abolished as far as the sheep are concerned, but it was not abolished for the goats. So, "the law was made not for the righteous", stands. The law of Moses, which Pauls calls the law of sin and death is still applicable to the goats, but the law of Christ is applicable for the sheep.

So, everyone is judged by "the law that gives freedom", and those who fullfill that law, the sheep, are never judged by the law of sin and death, being the law of Moses. In James it states that "judgment without mercy will be shown to anyone who has not been merciful". So, what is judgment without mercy?? It is the full weight of the law of Moses coming down on the heads of the goats, an unforgiving law for those who did not forgive.

It is then the law of Christ that has been established for the righteous.

Sorry friend, my post was not meant to refute your assertions on this thread. It was just a random thought, that i felt may support your stance. In that the law of moses was nailed to the cross and some of the laws of moses were that, moses and not Gods... generally I am speaking. Thanks for your responce anyway it was very intresting.

Blessings


Fejao x

 

[apenman]

Oops! Sorry!