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The KJVO myth...

Strong in Him

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Uh… no. We can see that the KJB stands above the rest in regards to be more pure in doctrine, and instruction in righteousness. You can check the list of doctrines that are changed here. You can check out a list of commands that are changed here.

No; YOU can see .....

As I've said before, if there are differences between the KJV and modern versions, you are always going to take the side of the KJV because its "perfection" is your starting point.
So if there is a verse that is not in the NIV, for example, but is in the KJV, then clearly the NIV is at fault and has removed it. The possibility that the KJV may have added a verse/word is not something that you will consider; that would mean that the KJV was in some way at fault, which can't be the case because you have already declared it to be perfect.

As I have also said before, you should be comparing the KJV and other Bibles with the Greek, and looking to see which is the most accurate. But I'm guessing there's a reason you don't want to do that.
 
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trophy33

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You can actually look it up those words from the Nestle Aland 27th edition (confirming the truth).
But will you do so? My guess is that many like yourself will not look it up or they will try to explain it away somehow. Again, one sees what they want to see for their own reasons.
And the dedication of TR to pope is something you want to see? Do not be so biased. Textus Receptus was much more catholic than Nestlé-Aland and you know it.

The catholic church is the biggest Christian branch so get used to it that some catholics will work on Christian things. The committee is composed of various Christians so the result is not biased (again better than Erasmus, one sole Catholic).
 
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pescador

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You are discounting all the points I made and you are repeating the same ole arguments that have been explained already. There are also KJB apologetics on some of these verses that have refuted your points time and time again. Your other points are not even points in my opinion but they appear more like nitpicks that can be explained rationally. But what about the problems in the Modern Translations? They are too problematic to ignore - IMHO. I believe you want to see what you want to for your own reasons. For me: Your position is illogical because I would not be a believer today (most likely) if I believed there was no perfect Word of God I could trust (Because God did not have the power to preserve His own Word perfectly for me fully to understand). It would be a holey bible (full of holes), and not a Holy Bible. I don’t believe God makes mistakes in His Word. I believe God is perfect in everything He does.

You are discounting all the points I made and you are repeating the same ole arguments that have been explained already. There are also KJB apologetics on some of these verses that have refuted your points time and time again. Your other points are not even points in my opinion but they appear more like nitpicks that can be explained rationally. But what about the problems in the Modern Translations? They are too problematic to ignore - IMHO. I believe you want to see what you want to for your own reasons. For me: Your position is illogical because I would not be a believer today (most likely) if I believed there was no perfect Word of God I could trust (Because God did not have the power to preserve His own Word perfectly for me fully to understand). It would be a holey bible (full of holes), and not a Holy Bible. I don’t believe God makes mistakes in His Word. I believe God is perfect in everything He does.
@Bible Highlighter IMHO. I believe you want to see what you want to for your own reasons.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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No; YOU can see .....

As I've said before, if there are differences between the KJV and modern versions, you are always going to take the side of the KJV because its "perfection" is your starting point.
So if there is a verse that is not in the NIV, for example, but is in the KJV, then clearly the NIV is at fault and has removed it. The possibility that the KJV may have added a verse/word is not something that you will consider; that would mean that the KJV was in some way at fault, which can't be the case because you have already declared it to be perfect.

As I have also said before, you should be comparing the KJV and other Bibles with the Greek, and looking to see which is the most accurate. But I'm guessing there's a reason you don't want to do that.

No. The KJV was not always my starting point. I did the study by comparing the KJB vs. Modern Translations and I discovered it was more pure in doctrine by comparison. I also investigated the origins behind the Modern Translations and they can be traced with some kind of subtle Catholic influence. Those who are in favor of the original languages usually favor the Critical Text (Which is in part based on Catholic origins).
 
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trophy33

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I also investigated the origins behind the Modern Translations and they can be traced with some kind of subtle Catholic influence.

While the Erasmus edition can be traced with some kind of brutal Catholic influence and the KJV with some kind of brutal Anglican influence.
But thats OK, because the KJV is perfect, of course.
 
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And the dedication of TR to pope is something you want to see? Do not be so biased. Textus Receptus was much more catholic than Nestlé-Aland and you know it.

Uh, no. Actually the reverse is true. Modern Translations are tied to Catholicism, and the KJB is not because the Catholics tried to stop the KJB from going forth. Not once did the Catholics every endorse the KJB in history. So your seeing something that is not there. You are even seeing something in what I think that is not there.

You said:
The catholic church is the biggest Christian branch so get used to it that some catholics will work on Christian things.

Well… I believe Catholicism is unbiblical. But that is not another topic for another thread (if it is allowed).

Note: I have not found a section of the forums where it is allowed to debate on the practices of Catholicism being biblical.
 
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Strong in Him

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The Trinity is true.
But only 1 John 5:7 teaches it directly.

You posted…

Ephesians 1:3 that says,
“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ”

However, there is nothing here about how God is one God and yet He is three persons.

Also, I looked at the verses you provided and they do not actually mention how God is a Trinity. Yes, God is a Trinity, but that truth is only directly taught in 1 John 5:7.
So you did not actually provide any verses that teach the same thing as 1 John 5:7.

Read my post again.

I said that the Gospel, Christ's resurrection, salvation, the need to be born again, filled with the Spirit, that he gives us every spiritual blessing in Christ, makes us children of God, and others are the same in every Bible. EVERY bible tells us the Gospel, the need to repent etc etc - Christian doctrines are taught in all these Bibles which, you say, can maybe affect salvation and hinder Christian growth.

I did not post the references to verses that show the Trinity. Proving the Trinity was not my main point - it was to show that Christians can read modern versions of the Bible and be just as much born again and able to lead Christian lives as you do.

So enough of the "your Christian growth may be hindered if you do not read the KJV" statements please.
 
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trophy33

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Uh, no. Actually the reverse is true. Modern Translations are tied to Catholicism, and the KJB is not because the Catholics tried to stop the KJB from going forth. Not once did the Catholics every endorse the KJB in history. So your seeing something that is not there. You are even seeing something in what I think that is not there.
Again, Erasmus was a catholic priest, he dedicated the TR to the pope, he translated some verses to Greek from Latin and added 1J 5:7 because of the catholic church.
And your arguments for the KJV are the same as the arguments of catholics for Vulgate.
 
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While the Erasmus edition can be traced with some kind of brutal Catholic influence and the KJV with some kind of brutal Anglican influence.
But thats OK, because the KJV is perfect, of course.

Again, Erasmus was not 100% chummy with the Catholic Church. So it was not like the Catholic Church was endorsing his work. The Catholics basically said that Erasmus laid the egg that Luther hatched. There were also 47 translators on the KJB and they chose other manuscripts in their translation process, as well. The Catholics actually tried to stop the KJB translation because they did not want the Word of God getting into the hands of the common man. For the Catholic Church spoke in Latin and they did not want everyone understanding the Word of God in the common language. It’s why you see Catholics today pushing the idea that an average believer cannot understand God’s Word without the priests of the Catholic Church, etc.
 
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trophy33

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Again, Erasmus was not 100% chummy with the Catholic Church.
So, when its about the KJV, its good enough when Textus Receptus is not 100% catholic.

But its bad enough for Nestle-Aland if there is one member of the committee a catholic.

Not biased at all.
 
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trophy33

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The Catholics basically said that Erasmus laid the egg that Luther hatched.
And the translation of Luther.... does not have the KJV 1J 5:7 reading! Surprised?

There were also 47 translators on the KJB and they chose other manuscripts in their translation process, as well.
They had no manuscripts. Manuscripts were safe in continental Europe.

The Catholics actually tried to stop the KJB translation because they did not want the Word of God getting into the hands of the common man.
They also tried to stop the Luther Bible, French reformation translation, Czech reformation translation....and non of these has the KJV reading of 1J 5:7. Suprised?

Your arguments simply are not good.
 
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Well, actually, the Gutenberg was the Latin Vulgate.

No. There are two Latin Vulgates. One is good, and the other is bad.

You said:
And the AV 1611 was too expensive for the common person to buy for awhile. OTOH, many could afford a Geneva edition. That's why it persisted for awhile after the AV came out. Part of the AV's expense was the king's TAX STAMP within it.

Did you live in that time to truly know that as a fact? In either case, I do understand it did take time for the King James to go through a purification process. I believe the 1900 Cambridge Edition is the final purification out of seven purifications of the KJB. The Bible talks about the Word being purified seven times. I believe by this time, families were able to own the pure Word of God. It was not an overnight thing.
 
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So, when its about the KJV, its good enough when Textus Receptus is not 100% catholic.

But its bad enough for Nestle-Aland if there is one member of the committee a catholic.

Not biased at all.

Erasmus was not on the committee of the 47 translators for the KJB. His work might have been used, but they also consulted other manuscripts, as well. So again, … there is a big difference.

@Bible Highlighter IMHO. I believe you want to see what you want to for your own reasons.

But what do you have to offer that is better? Where’s your perfect Bible? You have none. The OAO way of thinking can only offer me an impure Word that I have to keep piecing together to figure out what God said based on my own fallible reasoning alone. For how can I trust God’s Word if it is broken and has holes in it? How can trust God’s Word if it is in a dead language that nobody truly knows like an apostle Paul?
 
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trophy33

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Erasmus was not on the committee of the 47 translators for the KJB. His work might have been used, but they also consulted other manuscripts, as well. So again, … there is a big difference.
They had no manuscripts to consult. Only Erasmus' work. They were totally dependent on him.

Also,why do you trust 47 anglican translators so much? Anglicanism is your favourite branch? Were they free to do their work or the king with his agenda had a word in it?
 
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Read my post again.

I said that the Gospel, Christ's resurrection, salvation, the need to be born again, filled with the Spirit, that he gives us every spiritual blessing in Christ, makes us children of God, and others are the same in every Bible. EVERY bible tells us the Gospel, the need to repent etc etc - Christian doctrines are taught in all these Bibles which, you say, can maybe affect salvation and hinder Christian growth.

I did not post the references to verses that show the Trinity. Proving the Trinity was not my main point - it was to show that Christians can read modern versions of the Bible and be just as much born again and able to lead Christian lives as you do.

So enough of the "your Christian growth may be hindered if you do not read the KJV" statements please.

You said…. “ All Bibles proclaim the same, Triune, God;”

But you offered no Scripture to back up this claim.

Only 1 John 5:7 directly teaches the Triune God. It’s a fact (Whether you agree with that fact or not).
No other verses does this.
 
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They had no manuscripts to consult. Only Erasmus' work. They were totally dependent on him.

Also,why do you trust 47 anglican translators so much? Anglicanism is your favourite branch? Were they free to do their work or the king with his agenda had a word in it?

That’s not true. The KJV relied on a handful of very late Greek manuscripts, including five editions of the Textus Receptus by Erasmus, the Stephanus edition, and the Bezae codex.
 
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trophy33

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That’s not true. The KJV relied on a handful of very late Greek manuscripts, including five editions of the Textus Receptus by Erasmus, the Stephanus edition, and the Bezae codex.
Source?

And if the manuscripts were "very late", whats the benefit of having them?
 
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Oseas

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You said…. “ All Bibles proclaim the same, Triune, God;”

But you offered no Scripture to back up this claim.

Only 1 John 5:7 directly teaches the Triune God. It’s a fact (Whether you agree with that fact or not).
No other verses does this.


1John 5:v.7 - There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit (which is not a Ghost as is written in English LANGUAGE, but a Person): and these three are One.

Matthew 11:v.27 -... no MAN knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any MAN the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal Him.

The writers try, among the doubts, to understand the deep mysteries of Three Divine Persons, and even they progress to a certain point in their vision, without however reaching the main goal: Identify who is the character to which it was added the epithet [holy,] In fact, this is very profound and is not easy to penetrate in this wonderful heavenly environment although our privilege to be "living or dwelling" spiritually even in heaven through / by the Word of GOD -the Word is GOD - or in heavenly place in Christ as is revealed in Ephesians 1:v.3-7(among others):

3 Blessed be the GOD and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:
4 According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love:
5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself (Hallelujaaah), according to the good pleasure of His will,
6 To the praise of the glory of His grace, wherein He hath made us accepted in the beloved.-JESUS-. Songs of Solomon chap. 2;5;6;8.


THREE DIVINE PERSONS
THE PERSON OF GOD, THE FATHER - THE WORD

Although GOD -the Word- be invisible, the true believers know many things about HIM because JESUS revealed Him (Matt.11:v.27 among others). By the way, in His pray Lord JESUS said: John 17:v.4-10 :
4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.
7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee.
8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them.


THE PERSON OF GOD, THE SON -JESUS- THE WORD MADE FLESH
No need to comment. The Person of JESUS is known from two thousand years ago-Hebrews 1:v.1-3. In fact, the person of JESUS was known many time before His birth by the prophets, the Spirit of Christ was in them-1 Peter 1:v.10-12.
In fact, the Person of JESUS (Behold the man!) is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too.



THE HOLY SPIRIT - AN UNKNOWN PERSON
The person of the Holy Spirit is not a ghost as is written in English language, but a Person, and as a Person, as was JESUS in flesh and bones, he is unknown completely. As a Person he has several missions; JESUS said: John 16:v.12-15 and v.8-11:
12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.
13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of Judgment:
9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;
10 Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;
11 Of Judgment, because the prince of this world is Judged.

- The Person of he Holy Spirit has not genealogy as JESUS has; why? Because he is not a Jew.
- As I above said, JESUS, or the NAME of JESUS, is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too. But the person of the Holy Spirit has a NAME written (in the Holy Scriptures, course) that no MAN knows, but he himself. I repit: He has not genealogy as JESUS has, he is not a Jew.
- JESUS came from heaven and He was born in Israel. John 6:38 - I came down from heaven(Behold the man!John 19:5)not to do mine own will, but the will of Him that sent me.
In the other hand, the prophetic birth of the person of Holy Spirit is not in Israel, but in a Gentile nation. His birth is within the body of Christ-the Church-and as JESUS said, he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak, for he shall receive of mine, he shall take of mine. This exposed picture or figure is like the Sun and Moon. The Moon receives light from the Sun and reflets the light over the Earth; Regardings the light of JESUS reflected by the Holy Spirit over the Earth, I can see by analogy in Genesis 1:v.16:-And GOD made two great lights; the Greater Light to rule the day, and the Lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

Revelation 12:1-2 & 5.
12 And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman(the Church of the Lord JESUS) clothed with the Sun (JESUS and His Light, the Greater Light), and the moon (the Lesser light - the person of the Holy Spirit) under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars: (The twelve Apostles of the Lord JESUS)
2 And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered. 5-And she brought forth a man child - the person of the Holy Spirit- , who was to rule all nations (EXCEPT ISRAEL) with a rod of iron: and her child was CAUGHT UP unto GOD, and to His throne. By the way, about GOD's Throne-Psalm 97:v.1-2CJB say: 1 Adonai is king, let the earth rejoice, let the many coasts and islands be glad. 2 CLOUDS and thick darkness surround Him; Righteousness and Justice are the foundation of His throne. (By the way, as is written in 1 Thessalonians 4:v.17, "We which are alive and remain shall be CAUGHT UP (AS HER SON-REV. 12:v.5) together with them in the CLOUDS-Psalm 97:v.2, to meet the Lord in the AIR (AIR is heaven - here the third heaven): and so shall we ever be with the Lord.-(in the third heaven)

That said, what was asked by Mr. Porson and answered by Beza has sense, as I transcribe below:
>>> Again, Mr. Porson asks, “ Why is the epithet [holy,] ” after being twice omitted, added [to Spirit] in the seventh verse ? Beza
says,
In order to distinguish one Spirit from the other, ut ab eo distinguatur cujus fit mentio in sequenti versu." <<<

I highlight also the explanation below mainly where the commenter tries to understand and asks "why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically?" Perhaps, too, because when the Three Divine Persons are connumerated in the same passage, as in Matth. xxviii. 19, 2 Cor. xiii. 14, the epithet was usually added. It may also be asked, why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically? But his conclusion is much much more interesting and impressive when he says: The reason appears to be, because in one the unity is essential and real; in the other, adventitious and APPARENT ONLY (highlight mine); and because the eighth verse is dependent on the seventh, as a RELATIVE is on its antecedent.
 
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robycop3

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Are you inerrant and perfect just because you exist?
Of course not. Don't be silly.


But no difference regarding your claim of inerrancy. The simple fact that manuscripts exist does not mean they are inerrant or perfect.
None of us were there when they were written, and we have no idea who wrote most of them where or when. We don't know their sources. So, we have no reason to pronounce them corrupt or errant.
 
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1John 5:v.17 - There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit (which is not a Ghost as is written in English LANGUAGE, but a Person): and these three are One.

Matthew 11:v.27 -... no MAN knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any MAN the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal Him.

The writers try, among the doubts, to understand the deep mysteries of Three Divine Persons, and even they progress to a certain point in their vision, without however reaching the main goal: Identify who is the character to which it was added the epithet [holy,] In fact, this is very profound and is not easy to penetrate in this wonderful heavenly environment although our privilege to be "living or dwelling" spiritually even in heaven through / by the Word of GOD -the Word is GOD - or in heavenly place in Christ as is revealed in Ephesians 1:v.3-7(among others):

3 Blessed be the GOD and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:
4 According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love:
5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself (Hallelujaaah), according to the good pleasure of His will,
6 To the praise of the glory of His grace, wherein He hath made us accepted in the beloved.-JESUS-. Songs of Solomon chap. 2;5;6;8.


THREE DIVINE PERSONS
THE PERSON OF GOD, THE FATHER - THE WORD

Although GOD -the Word- be invisible, the true believers know many things about HIM because JESUS revealed Him (Matt.11:v.27 among others). By the way, in His pray Lord JESUS said: John 17:v.4-10 :
4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.
7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee.
8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them.


THE PERSON OF GOD, THE SON -JESUS- THE WORD MADE FLESH
No need to comment. The Person of JESUS is known from two thousand years ago-Hebrews 1:v.1-3. In fact, the person of JESUS was known many time before His birth by the prophets, the Spirit of Christ was in them-1 Peter 1:v.10-12.
In fact, the Person of JESUS (Behold the man!) is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too.



THE HOLY SPIRIT - AN UNKNOWN PERSON
The person of the Holy Spirit is not a ghost as is written in English language, but a Person, and as a Person, as was JESUS in flesh and bones, he is unknown completely. As a Person he has several missions; JESUS said: John 16:v.12-15 and v.8-11:
12 I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.
13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of Judgment:
9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;
10 Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;
11 Of Judgment, because the prince of this world is Judged.

- The Person of he Holy Spirit has not genealogy as JESUS has; why? Because he is not a Jew.
- As I above said, JESUS, or the NAME of JESUS, is known of men, and is also known of the angels, and He is known of the demons too. But the person of the Holy Spirit has a NAME written (in the Holy Scriptures, course) that no MAN knows, but he himself. I repit: He has not genealogy as JESUS has, he is not a Jew.
- JESUS came from heaven and He was born in Israel. John 6:38 - I came down from heaven(Behold the man!John 19:5)not to do mine own will, but the will of Him that sent me.
In the other hand, the prophetic birth of the person of Holy Spirit is not in Israel, but in a Gentile nation. His birth is within the body of Christ-the Church-and as JESUS said, he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak, for he shall receive of mine, he shall take of mine. This exposed picture or figure is like the Sun and Moon. The Moon receives light from the Sun and reflets the light over the Earth; Regardings the light of JESUS reflected by the Holy Spirit over the Earth, I can see by analogy in Genesis 1:v.16:-And GOD made two great lights; the Greater Light to rule the day, and the Lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

Revelation 12:1-2 & 5.
12 And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman(the Church of the Lord JESUS) clothed with the Sun (JESUS and His Light, the Greater Light), and the moon (the Lesser light - the person of the Holy Spirit) under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars: (The twelve Apostles of the Lord JESUS)
2 And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered. 5-And she brought forth a man child - the person of the Holy Spirit- , who was to rule all nations (EXCEPT ISRAEL) with a rod of iron: and her child was CAUGHT UP unto GOD, and to His throne. By the way, about GOD's Throne-Psalm 97:v.1-2CJB say: 1 Adonai is king, let the earth rejoice, let the many coasts and islands be glad. 2 CLOUDS and thick darkness surround Him; Righteousness and Justice are the foundation of His throne. (By the way, as is written in 1 Thessalonians 4:v.17, "We which are alive and remain shall be CAUGHT UP (AS HER SON-REV. 12:v.5) together with them in the CLOUDS-Psalm 97:v.2, to meet the Lord in the AIR (AIR is heaven - here the third heaven): and so shall we ever be with the Lord.-(in the third heaven)

That said, what was asked by Mr. Porson and answered by Beza has sense, as I transcribe below:
>>> Again, Mr. Porson asks, “ Why is the epithet [holy,] ” after being twice omitted, added [to Spirit] in the seventh verse ? Beza
says,
In order to distinguish one Spirit from the other, ut ab eo distinguatur cujus fit mentio in sequenti versu." <<<

I highlight also the explanation below mainly where the commenter tries to understand and asks "why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically?" Perhaps, too, because when the Three Divine Persons are connumerated in the same passage, as in Matth. xxviii. 19, 2 Cor. xiii. 14, the epithet was usually added. It may also be asked, why, in the original, the expression of unity in the two verses differs, one from the other, both doctrinally and grammatically? But his conclusion is much much more interesting and impressive when he says: The reason appears to be, because in one the unity is essential and real; in the other, adventitious and APPARENT ONLY (highlight mine); and because the eighth verse is dependent on the seventh, as a RELATIVE is on its antecedent.

I believe the beginning of the gospel of John (John 1:1-4, John 1:14) offers some really great evidence of implying towards the step in believing in the Trinity, but it does not teach the Trinity point blank like 1 John 5:7 does. This is one of the many reasons why I am so for the King James Bible. It is doctrinally pure. I can defend the Trinity against a Jehovah’s Witness (JW, WatchTower Soceity) with my King James Bible by pointing them to 1 John 5:7. The rest of Scripture simply supports this truth but I do not believe it teaches exactly the same thing as 1 John 5:7. 1 John 5:7 directly teaches the Trinity by saying the three are one. We believe the Lord our God is one God but yet He is three distinct persons.
 
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